CEA Prep
Full Practice Guide
2025/2026
Exam Prep Material
with
Verified Questions and Answers
A+ Grades Guarantee
, Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If
the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is
either right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The patient is exhibiting a
productive cough and a low-grade
fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows
a left lower chest area of
consolidation adjacent to the left
border of the heart approximately 2
rib spaces above the costophrenic
angle. The lateral x-ray view shows
this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette.
Which is the most likely location of
this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
Diastolic dysfunction
The inability to fully relax the Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the
myocardium during relaxation is a diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with
trademark of which of the following thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
diagnoses?
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines
should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such
An otherwise healthy African as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
American adult male has been hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
diagnosed with hypertension. He has
been restricting his salt intake, eating
a DASH (Dietary Approaches to
Stop Hypertension) diet, and
exercising more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated. Which is
the BEST medication to prescribe
him?
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
Your patient has been diagnosed not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
with a 4.5cm ascending aortic measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
considered standard of care for serial unnecessary.
surveillance?
, phenylephrine
Which of the following medications Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
does not cause beta 1 stimulation? remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is
congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up
with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
A 50-year-old woman with a history suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have
an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient
of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
On examination, she has jugular orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
venous distention and bilateral appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
crackles on lung auscultation. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less
than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an
implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if
the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death
Your patient with a history of HFrEF with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an
(heart failure with reduced ejection AICD in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
fraction) with an ejection fraction of echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required
40% who is also not on optimal by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to
medical therapy has been diagnosed provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
with a myocardial infarction this Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
admission and received emergent A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient
placement of a drug-eluting stent to as presented.
the left anterior descending artery.
As the medical home who will
manage this patient after discharge,
which medication strategy would
you expect to be a priority in the
patient's care?
Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and
Which of the following people American Indians are at at increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher
groups represent the least risk of rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than Caucasians.
cardiac disease?
, a statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors
may be useful in reducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active
A 65-year-old woman presents for a smoker with premature coronary disease history (less than age 65 for
follow-up examination. She is a women), has hypertension and is far from an LDL goal, this patient is
smoker, and her hypertension is now most certainly a candidate for statin therapy, which represents the most
adequately controlled with aggressive therapy option of these four listed.
medication. Her mother died at age
40 from a heart attack. The fasting
lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240
mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200.
In addition to starting therapeutic
lifestyle changes, the nurse
practitioner should start the patient
on:
Peripheral neuropathy
Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have
peripheral neuropathy, it is only directly attributed to patients who are
Which of the following end-organ also diabetic and is commonly found in non-hypertensive diabetic
sequelae is not directly caused by patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused
uncontrolled hypertension? by uncontrolled hypertension.
Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all
represent modifiable risk factors and should be the focus of preventive
Preventive cardiac care should focus care. Non-modifiable risk factors such as age, gender, genetic/family
primarily on addressing all the history should not be the primary focus of prevention.
following except?
Oral contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome
and the patient should be treated with oral contraceptives to help stabilize
their estrogen and progesterone. Additionally, they may be managed on
metformin and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first pharmacological
treatment for polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) because they help
manage in several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual cycles,
making periods lighter and more regular. This is important because
irregular ovulation can lead to endometrial hyperplasia, which is a
buildup of uterine tissue that can increase the risk of uterine cancer.
A 33-year-old woman presents with Androgen excess: OCPs can reduce androgen production and increase sex
irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), which binds androgens. This can
and obesity. Laboratory tests reveal help reduce symptoms like acne, hirsutism (unwanted body and facial
elevated serum testosterone and LH hair), and androgenic alopecia (male pattern baldness).
ratio > 2:1. What is the most Endometrium protection: OCPs can protect the endometrium by ensuring
appropriate initial treatment? regular ovulation
Full Practice Guide
2025/2026
Exam Prep Material
with
Verified Questions and Answers
A+ Grades Guarantee
, Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If
the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is
either right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The patient is exhibiting a
productive cough and a low-grade
fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows
a left lower chest area of
consolidation adjacent to the left
border of the heart approximately 2
rib spaces above the costophrenic
angle. The lateral x-ray view shows
this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette.
Which is the most likely location of
this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
Diastolic dysfunction
The inability to fully relax the Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the
myocardium during relaxation is a diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with
trademark of which of the following thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
diagnoses?
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines
should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such
An otherwise healthy African as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
American adult male has been hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
diagnosed with hypertension. He has
been restricting his salt intake, eating
a DASH (Dietary Approaches to
Stop Hypertension) diet, and
exercising more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated. Which is
the BEST medication to prescribe
him?
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
Your patient has been diagnosed not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
with a 4.5cm ascending aortic measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
considered standard of care for serial unnecessary.
surveillance?
, phenylephrine
Which of the following medications Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
does not cause beta 1 stimulation? remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is
congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up
with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
A 50-year-old woman with a history suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have
an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient
of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
On examination, she has jugular orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
venous distention and bilateral appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
crackles on lung auscultation. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less
than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an
implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if
the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death
Your patient with a history of HFrEF with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an
(heart failure with reduced ejection AICD in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
fraction) with an ejection fraction of echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required
40% who is also not on optimal by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to
medical therapy has been diagnosed provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
with a myocardial infarction this Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
admission and received emergent A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient
placement of a drug-eluting stent to as presented.
the left anterior descending artery.
As the medical home who will
manage this patient after discharge,
which medication strategy would
you expect to be a priority in the
patient's care?
Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and
Which of the following people American Indians are at at increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher
groups represent the least risk of rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than Caucasians.
cardiac disease?
, a statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors
may be useful in reducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active
A 65-year-old woman presents for a smoker with premature coronary disease history (less than age 65 for
follow-up examination. She is a women), has hypertension and is far from an LDL goal, this patient is
smoker, and her hypertension is now most certainly a candidate for statin therapy, which represents the most
adequately controlled with aggressive therapy option of these four listed.
medication. Her mother died at age
40 from a heart attack. The fasting
lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240
mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200.
In addition to starting therapeutic
lifestyle changes, the nurse
practitioner should start the patient
on:
Peripheral neuropathy
Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have
peripheral neuropathy, it is only directly attributed to patients who are
Which of the following end-organ also diabetic and is commonly found in non-hypertensive diabetic
sequelae is not directly caused by patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused
uncontrolled hypertension? by uncontrolled hypertension.
Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all
represent modifiable risk factors and should be the focus of preventive
Preventive cardiac care should focus care. Non-modifiable risk factors such as age, gender, genetic/family
primarily on addressing all the history should not be the primary focus of prevention.
following except?
Oral contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome
and the patient should be treated with oral contraceptives to help stabilize
their estrogen and progesterone. Additionally, they may be managed on
metformin and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first pharmacological
treatment for polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) because they help
manage in several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual cycles,
making periods lighter and more regular. This is important because
irregular ovulation can lead to endometrial hyperplasia, which is a
buildup of uterine tissue that can increase the risk of uterine cancer.
A 33-year-old woman presents with Androgen excess: OCPs can reduce androgen production and increase sex
irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), which binds androgens. This can
and obesity. Laboratory tests reveal help reduce symptoms like acne, hirsutism (unwanted body and facial
elevated serum testosterone and LH hair), and androgenic alopecia (male pattern baldness).
ratio > 2:1. What is the most Endometrium protection: OCPs can protect the endometrium by ensuring
appropriate initial treatment? regular ovulation
