NUR2755 / NUR 2755
NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Exam Newest 2025/2026 Update
|Questions And Answers With Detailed Rationales | 100%
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This Exam Document Contains:
NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Exam
Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 – Rasmussen
Questions & Answers With Detailed Rationales incl. Essays
100% Guaranteed Pass
Complete A+ Guide
, NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Exam Newest 2025/2026 Update
|Questions And Answers With Detailed Rationales |
100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide
1. A nurse is assessing a client with a neurodegenerative disorder. The
client presents with a slow, shuffling, propulsive gait, resting tremors, and
a mask-like face. These findings are most characteristic of which
condition?
A) Alzheimer's Disease
B) Multiple Sclerosis
C) Parkinson's Disease
D) Migraine with Aura
Correct Answer: C) Parkinson's Disease
Rationale: The classic triad of Parkinson's disease symptoms includes
bradykinesia (slow movement), muscle rigidity, and resting tremors. The slow,
shuffling gait and reduced facial expression (mask-like face) are direct results of
bradykinesia and rigidity. Alzheimer's primarily affects cognition and memory,
while Multiple Sclerosis often causes intention tremors and visual disturbances,
making Parkinson's the best fit for this clinical picture.
2. A client is diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis. Which of the following
clinical manifestations would the nurse most likely expect to find?
A) Agnosia and apraxia
,B) Intention tremors and diplopia
C) Resting tremors and bradykinesia
D) Unilateral weakness and an offensive smell aura
Correct Answer: B) Intention tremors and diplopia
Rationale: Multiple Sclerosis is a demyelinating disorder of the Central Nervous
System. Lesions in the cerebellum can cause intention tremors (shaking during
voluntary movement), and lesions in the brainstem can affect cranial nerves,
leading to diplopia (double vision). Agnosia and apraxia are more common in
cortical disorders like Alzheimer's, while resting tremors are hallmark of
Parkinson's.
3. For a client experiencing acute migraines, which class of medication is
commonly used as an abortive therapy?
A) Beta Blockers
B) Cholinesterase Inhibitors
C) Triptans
D) NMDA Receptor Antagonists
Correct Answer: C) Triptans
Rationale: Abortive therapies are designed to stop a migraine after it has
started. Triptans work by constricting cranial blood vessels and blocking pain
pathways in the brain, making them highly effective for acute attacks. Beta
blockers are used for prevention, not abortion. Cholinesterase inhibitors and
NMDA antagonists are used for Alzheimer's disease, not migraines.
4. During a neurological assessment, a client is unable to name a pen when
shown one, despite being able to describe its use. This specific deficit is
, known as:
A) Aphasia
B) Apraxia
C) Agnosia
D) Anomia
Correct Answer: D) Anomia
Rationale: Anomia is a specific type of aphasia characterized by the inability to
recall the names of objects, even when the person understands the object's
function. Aphasia is a broader term for language impairment. Apraxia is a motor
planning deficit, and agnosia is a loss of sensory comprehension, neither of
which directly describes the inability to name an object.
5. The definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is confirmed by which of
the following?
A) A specific laboratory blood test
B) MRI showing plaques in two areas of the brain
C) Analysis of CSF showing decreased dopamine
D) Brain tissue examination at autopsy revealing neurofibrillary tangles
Correct Answer: D) Brain tissue examination at autopsy revealing
neurofibrillary tangles
Rationale: While clinical diagnosis of Alzheimer's is based on symptoms and
ruling out other causes, the definitive pathological confirmation requires
postmortem brain biopsy. This biopsy identifies the hallmark neurofibrillary
tangles and neuritic plaques. There is no definitive blood test, an MRI can
NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Exam Newest 2025/2026 Update
|Questions And Answers With Detailed Rationales | 100%
Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide
Ascorers Stuvia
This Exam Document Contains:
NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Exam
Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 – Rasmussen
Questions & Answers With Detailed Rationales incl. Essays
100% Guaranteed Pass
Complete A+ Guide
, NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Exam Newest 2025/2026 Update
|Questions And Answers With Detailed Rationales |
100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide
1. A nurse is assessing a client with a neurodegenerative disorder. The
client presents with a slow, shuffling, propulsive gait, resting tremors, and
a mask-like face. These findings are most characteristic of which
condition?
A) Alzheimer's Disease
B) Multiple Sclerosis
C) Parkinson's Disease
D) Migraine with Aura
Correct Answer: C) Parkinson's Disease
Rationale: The classic triad of Parkinson's disease symptoms includes
bradykinesia (slow movement), muscle rigidity, and resting tremors. The slow,
shuffling gait and reduced facial expression (mask-like face) are direct results of
bradykinesia and rigidity. Alzheimer's primarily affects cognition and memory,
while Multiple Sclerosis often causes intention tremors and visual disturbances,
making Parkinson's the best fit for this clinical picture.
2. A client is diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis. Which of the following
clinical manifestations would the nurse most likely expect to find?
A) Agnosia and apraxia
,B) Intention tremors and diplopia
C) Resting tremors and bradykinesia
D) Unilateral weakness and an offensive smell aura
Correct Answer: B) Intention tremors and diplopia
Rationale: Multiple Sclerosis is a demyelinating disorder of the Central Nervous
System. Lesions in the cerebellum can cause intention tremors (shaking during
voluntary movement), and lesions in the brainstem can affect cranial nerves,
leading to diplopia (double vision). Agnosia and apraxia are more common in
cortical disorders like Alzheimer's, while resting tremors are hallmark of
Parkinson's.
3. For a client experiencing acute migraines, which class of medication is
commonly used as an abortive therapy?
A) Beta Blockers
B) Cholinesterase Inhibitors
C) Triptans
D) NMDA Receptor Antagonists
Correct Answer: C) Triptans
Rationale: Abortive therapies are designed to stop a migraine after it has
started. Triptans work by constricting cranial blood vessels and blocking pain
pathways in the brain, making them highly effective for acute attacks. Beta
blockers are used for prevention, not abortion. Cholinesterase inhibitors and
NMDA antagonists are used for Alzheimer's disease, not migraines.
4. During a neurological assessment, a client is unable to name a pen when
shown one, despite being able to describe its use. This specific deficit is
, known as:
A) Aphasia
B) Apraxia
C) Agnosia
D) Anomia
Correct Answer: D) Anomia
Rationale: Anomia is a specific type of aphasia characterized by the inability to
recall the names of objects, even when the person understands the object's
function. Aphasia is a broader term for language impairment. Apraxia is a motor
planning deficit, and agnosia is a loss of sensory comprehension, neither of
which directly describes the inability to name an object.
5. The definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is confirmed by which of
the following?
A) A specific laboratory blood test
B) MRI showing plaques in two areas of the brain
C) Analysis of CSF showing decreased dopamine
D) Brain tissue examination at autopsy revealing neurofibrillary tangles
Correct Answer: D) Brain tissue examination at autopsy revealing
neurofibrillary tangles
Rationale: While clinical diagnosis of Alzheimer's is based on symptoms and
ruling out other causes, the definitive pathological confirmation requires
postmortem brain biopsy. This biopsy identifies the hallmark neurofibrillary
tangles and neuritic plaques. There is no definitive blood test, an MRI can
