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Examen

ATI Med-Surg 2 Exam 2 – 2026 Practice Questions & Rationales

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Prepare for ATI Med-Surg 2 Exam 2 – 2026 with this comprehensive study guide featuring 200+ practice questions, correct answers, and detailed rationales. Ideal for nursing students reviewing advanced adult health, complex disease management, and critical care concepts. Strengthen your knowledge, critical thinking, and exam readiness with this high-yield, easy-to-follow study resource.

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ATI Med-Surg 2 Exam 2 – 2026 Verified Version Most Recent exam
COMPLETE (2026) EXAM Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) (Latest
Update 2026) Graded A+

A client has a history of diabetes mellitus. After assessing the client, the primary healthcare provider confirms
damage to the sensory limb of the bladder spinal reflex arc. Which clinical manifestations could confirm this
condition?
1. Incomplete voiding
2. Overdistention of bladder
3. Lack of control on micturition
4. Infrequent voiding of large residual volumes - CORRECT ✔✔✔✔✔ 4. Infrequent voiding of large
residual volumes

Damage to the sensory limb of the bladder spinal reflex arc is a type of sensory neurogenic bladder where the
client lacks the sensation of needing to urinate. This is usually seen in clients with multiple sclerosis and
diabetes mellitus. Its clinical manifestation is infrequent voiding of large residual volumes. Incomplete
voiding is a symptom of reflexic neurogenic bladder. Overdistention of the bladder and lack of control on
micturition are the symptoms of areflexic neurogenic bladder.

What are the reasons for performing a lumbar puncture on a client? Select all that apply.
1.Confirming spinal cord injuries
2. Assessing sensory nerve problems
3. Measuring blood flow in many areas
4. Reading cerebrospinal fluid pressure
5. Injecting contrast medium for diagnostic study - CORRECT ✔✔✔✔✔ 4. Reading cerebrospinal
fluid pressure
5. Injecting contrast medium for diagnostic study

A lumbar puncture is the insertion of a spinal needle into the subarachnoid space between the third and fourth
lumbar vertebrae; it can be used to obtain cerebrospinal fluid readings with a manometer. Using a lumbar
puncture, contrast medium or air is injected for diagnostic study. Evoked potentials measure the electrical
signals to the brain generated by sound, light, or touch, and are used to confirm neurologic conditions like
spinal cord injuries and multiple sclerosis. Evoked potentials are also used to assess sensory nerve problems.
Cerebral blood flow evaluation is used to measure blood flow in many areas using radioactive substances.

The nurse is conducting a neurologic assessment on a client brought to the emergency room after a motor
vehicle accident. While assessing the client's response to pain, the client pulls his arms upward and inward.
The nurse recognizes that this response represents an injury to what part of the brain?
1. Frontal lobe
2. Midbrain
3. Pons
4. Brainstem - CORRECT ✔✔✔✔✔ 2. Midbrain

Decorticate posturing [1] [2] [3] is a sign of significant deterioration in a client's neurologic status and is
manifested by rigid flexing of elbows and wrists. This can represent an injury to the midbrain. Damage to the
frontal lobe would affect motor function, problem solving, spontaneity, memory, language, initiation,
judgment, impulse control, and social and sexual behavior. The pons (which is part of the brainstem) and
EXAMPREPMASTER

,brainstem help control breathing and heart rate, vision, hearing, sweating, blood pressure, digestion, alertness,
sleep, and sense of balance. Damage to this area would manifest itself as abnormal responses in the above
listed areas.

A nurse completes an admission assessment on a client who is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which
clinical finding is the nurse most likely to identify?
1. Problems with cognition
2. Difficult swallowing saliva
3. Intention tremors of the hands
4. Nonintention tremors of the extremities - CORRECT ✔✔✔✔✔ 2. Difficulty swallowing saliva

Facial muscles innervated by the cranial nerves often are affected; dysphagia, ptosis, and diplopia are present.
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disease with altered neuromuscular junction and receptors, not central
nervous system symptoms (problems with cognition). Intention tremors of the hands are associated with
multiple sclerosis. Nonintention tremors of the extremities are associated with Parkinson disease.

The nurse is caring for a client who underwent surgery for a brain tumor. On assessment, the nurse suspects
meningitis in the client. Which finding would help confirm the nurse's suspicion?
1. Positive Kernig's sign
2. Glasgow coma scale: 10
3. Absence of nuchal rigidity
4. Negative Brudzinski sign - CORRECT ✔✔✔✔✔ 1. Positive Kernig's sign

Meningitis may occur secondary to surgical procedures on the brain. It is highly probable when Kernig sign is
positive. The Glasgow coma scale is used as a reliable way of recording the conscious state of the client, but it
is not used to diagnose meningitis. A meningitis diagnosis is highly probable with a positive Brudzinski sign
and the presence of nuchal rigidity (e.g., stiff neck).

A client comes into the emergency room (ER) after hitting his head while playing basketball. He is alert and
oriented. Which is a priority nursing intervention?
1. Assess full range of motion (ROM) to determine extent of injuries.
2. Call for an immediate head computed tomography (CT).
3. Immobilize the client's head and neck.
4. Open the airway with the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver. - CORRECT ✔✔✔✔✔ 3. Immobilize the
client's head and neck.

All clients with a head injury are treated as if a cervical spine injury is present until x-rays confirm their
absence. ROM would be contraindicated at this time. The head CT would be prescribed next. The airway does
not need to be opened because the client appears alert and not in respiratory distress. In addition, the head-tilt
chin-lift maneuver would not be used until the cervical spine injury is ruled out.

A client who sustained a closed head injury is being monitored for increased intracranial pressure. Arterial
blood gases are obtained, and the results include a PCO2 of 33 mm Hg. What action is most important for the
nurse to take?
1. Encourage the client to slow the breathing rate.
2. Auscultate the client's lungs and suction if indicated.
3. Advise the healthcare provider that the client needs supplemental oxygen.
4. Inform the healthcare provider of the results and continue to monitor for signs of increasing intracranial
pressure - CORRECT ✔✔✔✔✔ 4. Inform the healthcare provider of the results and continue to
monitor for signs of increasing intracranial pressure
EXAMPREPMASTER

, A lower than expected PCO2 actually will benefit the client because it reduces intracranial pressure by
preventing cerebral vasodilation; the results should be reported, and monitoring for signs and symptoms of
increased intracranial pressure [1] [2] should continue (restlessness, confusion and lethargy, pupillary and
oculomotor dysfunction, hemiparesis or hemiplegia of the contralateral side, projectile vomiting without
nausea, increased systolic pressure, widening pulse pressure and bradycardia, and altered breathing pattern).
Instructing the client to slow the breathing rate is inappropriate because it will elevate the PCO2, which will
increase intracranial pressure. There is no evidence that suctioning is indicated; suctioning increases
intracranial pressure and therefore should be avoided unless absolutely necessary to maintain a patent airway.
There is no evidence that supplemental oxygen is needed; an abnormal PCO2 does not indicate the need for
supplemental oxygen.

A healthcare provider determines that a client has myasthenia gravis. Which clinical findings does the nurse
expect when completing a health history and physical assessment? Select all that apply.
1. Double vision
2. Problems with cognition
3.Difficulty swallowing saliva
4. Intention tremors of the hands
5. Drooping of the upper eyelids
6. Nonintention tremors of the extremities - CORRECT ✔✔✔✔✔ 1. Double vision
3. Difficulty swallowing saliva
5. Drooping of the upper eyelids

Double vision occurs as a result of cranial nerve dysfunction. Facial muscles innervated by the cranial nerves
often are affected; difficulty with swallowing (dysphagia) is a common clinical finding. Drooping of the
upper eyelids (ptosis) occurs because of cranial nerve III (oculomotor) dysfunction. Myasthenia gravis is a
neuromuscular disease with lower motor neuron characteristics, not central nervous system symptoms.
Intention tremors of the hands are associated with multiple sclerosis. Nonintention tremors of the extremities
are associated with Parkinson disease.

After a mild brain attack (cerebrovascular accident, CVA) a client has difficulty grasping objects with the
dominant hand. To increase hand mobility and strength, what specific range-of-motion exercise should the
nurse teach the client?
1. Eversion
2. Supination
3. Opposition
4. Circumduction - CORRECT ✔✔✔✔✔ 3. Opposition

Opposition occurs when the thumb, a saddle joint, sequentially touches the tip of each finger of the same
hand; the thumb joint movements involved are abduction, rotation, and flexion. Strengthening the thumb
facilitates grasping and holding objects in the hand. Eversion involves turning the sole of the foot outward by
moving the ankle joint, which is a gliding joint. Supination involves moving the bones of the forearm so that
the palm of the hand faces upward when held in front of the body. Circumduction involves movement of the
distal part of the bone in a circle while the proximal end remains fixed; circumduction is used with ball-and-
socket joints, such as the shoulder and hip.

A client reports buzzing in the ear for the past 5 days and a decreased ability to hear sounds. After interacting
with the client, the nurse finds that the client is receiving long-term aminoglycoside therapy. Which cranial
nerve should the nurse suspect to be affected?
1. CN III
2. CN V
EXAMPREPMASTER
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