NREMT Paramedic Prep Real Exam Questions
and Answers | Fall 2025/2026
Update | 100% Correct
You are preparing to intubate an apneic patient and decide to use a Macintosh blade.
When using a curved blade on an adult, where should the tip of the laryngoscope blade be
placed?
A. Directly under the epiglottis
B. Space below the vallecula
C. Directly into the vallecula
D. Directly on the epiglottis - answer>>>C.
You have a 70-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. Your partner begins
compressions, and another paramedic on-scene begins ventilating with an OPA and BVM.
You look over to the fridge and find the patient's DNR orders that state the patient does
not want any life-saving procedures and looks to be signed and valid. However, the
patient has many pictures of her family on the fridge, and pictures drawn for her by her
grandchildren. There is no family on-scene.
What are the next steps that you should take?
A. Continue basic CPR and airway control, and transport to the hospital so they can
determine whether or not to continue resuscitation
B. Discontinue all resuscitation measures, and take the next steps of notifying your
dispatch and/or local medical coroner, as laid out by protocol
C. Follow full ACLS protocols for at least two minutes to assess whether the patient can be
resuscitated, as the patient looks to - answer>>>B.
You are on-scene assisting another crew with a childbirth call that quickly turned into a
neonatal resuscitation. The newborn does not have a palpable brachial pulse, but muffled
heart tones and the monitor confirm a sluggish heart rate of 55 beats per minute. After
reassessing him after a few minutes of high-quality chest compressions and effective
ventilations with 100% oxygen concentration, the patient's heart rate fails to respond.
,Which of the following would be considered a class IIa intervention for this patient?
A. 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the intraosseous
route
B. 0.01 mg/mL of a 1:1,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the intramuscular
route
C. 0.25 mg/mL of a 1:1,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the endotracheal
tube route
D. 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered intravenously -
answer>>>D.
Your adult trauma patient may be experiencing the adverse effects of a crush injury that
triggered the sudden release of high levels of histamine. What would this usually cause?
A. Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation
B. Irregular, shallow respirations and a normotensive blood pressure
C. Increased spontaneous respiration and unequal blood pressure readings in arms and
legs
D. Bronchodilation and vasoconstriction - answer>>>A.
While evaluating the twelve-lead electrocardiogram tracing of your 66-year-old cardiac
history patient for the possibility of an acute myocardial infarction, you note the presence
of deep symmetrically inverted T waves. Which of the following is most likely the cause of
this abnormal finding?
A. Necrosis
B. Ischemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia - answer>>>B.
You are treating a 50-year-old male with a cardiac history currently complaining of chest
pain. He is breathing at 20 times a minute, has an irregular heart rate of 136 beats per
,minute, and a blood pressure of 120/60. His twelve-lead-tracing indicates the presence of
an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).
What makes the ST-elevation infarction treatment different from a non-STEMI patient's
treatment?
A. A non-ST elevation infarction may respond to fibrinolytics, so destination is important
for this patient
B. ST-elevation infarctions may respond to fibrinolytics, so time and destination are critical
for this patient
C. ST-elevation patients will need a fluid bolus to maintain an adequate blood pressure
D. Nothing, both types will respond to fibrinolytic therapy equally - answer>>>B.
Which of the following respiratory patterns is most likely to be present with an adult
patient suffering the adverse effects of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Bradypnea
B. Central neurogenic hyperventilation
C. Kussmaul respirations
D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations - answer>>>C.
Your adult patient presents with shortness of breath and chest pain. She reports the pain
began last night and has worsened. She is breathing 28 times per minute with a SpO2 of
96 percent on room air. She reports the pain worsens when asked to take a deep breath.
Lung sounds are equal with a grating sound heard on inhalation. The patient's heart rate
and blood pressure are normal. She is showing a sinus rhythm with a first-degree
atrioventricular block present in lead II on the ECG.
Which of the following is most likely the cause of her complaints?
A. Pleurisy
B. Asthma
C. Acute myocardial infarction
, D. Bronchitis - answer>>>A.
Your 49-year-old COPD patient is unconscious and exhibiting ineffective respirations. You
quickly decide to attempt to control his airway and provide positive pressure ventilations.
Which airway adjunct has a large distal end with an inflatable cuff that presses against the
patient's esophageal sphincter while the proximal border of the airway device rests
against the patient's tongue?
A. King LTD airway
B. Esophageal-Tracheal Combi-tube
C. Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)
D. Nasotracheal intubation - answer>>>C.
Your adult patient has suffered a prolonged cardiac arrest interval and is receiving
advanced cardiac life-support interventions. When administering medications
intravenously, why should calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate not be administered
through the same IV line?
A. Calcium chloride will precipitate/crystallize when mixed with sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium chloride will antagonize the effects of sodium bicarbonate
C. Sodium bicarbonate will cause a rebound acidosis when mixed with calcium chloride
D. Sodium bicarbonate will act as an agonist to the calcium chloride causing
hypercalcemia - answer>>>A.
To combat increasing ICP in a head injury, the body utilizes this principle:
A. Monro-Kellie Principle
B. Bernicke Principle
C. Fick Principle
D. Bernoulli's Principle - answer>>>A.
Your adult patient called for help after he began to vomit bright red blood. On arrival, the
patient is found to be tachycardic and bleeding freely from his mouth. His respirations are
and Answers | Fall 2025/2026
Update | 100% Correct
You are preparing to intubate an apneic patient and decide to use a Macintosh blade.
When using a curved blade on an adult, where should the tip of the laryngoscope blade be
placed?
A. Directly under the epiglottis
B. Space below the vallecula
C. Directly into the vallecula
D. Directly on the epiglottis - answer>>>C.
You have a 70-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. Your partner begins
compressions, and another paramedic on-scene begins ventilating with an OPA and BVM.
You look over to the fridge and find the patient's DNR orders that state the patient does
not want any life-saving procedures and looks to be signed and valid. However, the
patient has many pictures of her family on the fridge, and pictures drawn for her by her
grandchildren. There is no family on-scene.
What are the next steps that you should take?
A. Continue basic CPR and airway control, and transport to the hospital so they can
determine whether or not to continue resuscitation
B. Discontinue all resuscitation measures, and take the next steps of notifying your
dispatch and/or local medical coroner, as laid out by protocol
C. Follow full ACLS protocols for at least two minutes to assess whether the patient can be
resuscitated, as the patient looks to - answer>>>B.
You are on-scene assisting another crew with a childbirth call that quickly turned into a
neonatal resuscitation. The newborn does not have a palpable brachial pulse, but muffled
heart tones and the monitor confirm a sluggish heart rate of 55 beats per minute. After
reassessing him after a few minutes of high-quality chest compressions and effective
ventilations with 100% oxygen concentration, the patient's heart rate fails to respond.
,Which of the following would be considered a class IIa intervention for this patient?
A. 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the intraosseous
route
B. 0.01 mg/mL of a 1:1,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the intramuscular
route
C. 0.25 mg/mL of a 1:1,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the endotracheal
tube route
D. 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered intravenously -
answer>>>D.
Your adult trauma patient may be experiencing the adverse effects of a crush injury that
triggered the sudden release of high levels of histamine. What would this usually cause?
A. Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation
B. Irregular, shallow respirations and a normotensive blood pressure
C. Increased spontaneous respiration and unequal blood pressure readings in arms and
legs
D. Bronchodilation and vasoconstriction - answer>>>A.
While evaluating the twelve-lead electrocardiogram tracing of your 66-year-old cardiac
history patient for the possibility of an acute myocardial infarction, you note the presence
of deep symmetrically inverted T waves. Which of the following is most likely the cause of
this abnormal finding?
A. Necrosis
B. Ischemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia - answer>>>B.
You are treating a 50-year-old male with a cardiac history currently complaining of chest
pain. He is breathing at 20 times a minute, has an irregular heart rate of 136 beats per
,minute, and a blood pressure of 120/60. His twelve-lead-tracing indicates the presence of
an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).
What makes the ST-elevation infarction treatment different from a non-STEMI patient's
treatment?
A. A non-ST elevation infarction may respond to fibrinolytics, so destination is important
for this patient
B. ST-elevation infarctions may respond to fibrinolytics, so time and destination are critical
for this patient
C. ST-elevation patients will need a fluid bolus to maintain an adequate blood pressure
D. Nothing, both types will respond to fibrinolytic therapy equally - answer>>>B.
Which of the following respiratory patterns is most likely to be present with an adult
patient suffering the adverse effects of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Bradypnea
B. Central neurogenic hyperventilation
C. Kussmaul respirations
D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations - answer>>>C.
Your adult patient presents with shortness of breath and chest pain. She reports the pain
began last night and has worsened. She is breathing 28 times per minute with a SpO2 of
96 percent on room air. She reports the pain worsens when asked to take a deep breath.
Lung sounds are equal with a grating sound heard on inhalation. The patient's heart rate
and blood pressure are normal. She is showing a sinus rhythm with a first-degree
atrioventricular block present in lead II on the ECG.
Which of the following is most likely the cause of her complaints?
A. Pleurisy
B. Asthma
C. Acute myocardial infarction
, D. Bronchitis - answer>>>A.
Your 49-year-old COPD patient is unconscious and exhibiting ineffective respirations. You
quickly decide to attempt to control his airway and provide positive pressure ventilations.
Which airway adjunct has a large distal end with an inflatable cuff that presses against the
patient's esophageal sphincter while the proximal border of the airway device rests
against the patient's tongue?
A. King LTD airway
B. Esophageal-Tracheal Combi-tube
C. Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)
D. Nasotracheal intubation - answer>>>C.
Your adult patient has suffered a prolonged cardiac arrest interval and is receiving
advanced cardiac life-support interventions. When administering medications
intravenously, why should calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate not be administered
through the same IV line?
A. Calcium chloride will precipitate/crystallize when mixed with sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium chloride will antagonize the effects of sodium bicarbonate
C. Sodium bicarbonate will cause a rebound acidosis when mixed with calcium chloride
D. Sodium bicarbonate will act as an agonist to the calcium chloride causing
hypercalcemia - answer>>>A.
To combat increasing ICP in a head injury, the body utilizes this principle:
A. Monro-Kellie Principle
B. Bernicke Principle
C. Fick Principle
D. Bernoulli's Principle - answer>>>A.
Your adult patient called for help after he began to vomit bright red blood. On arrival, the
patient is found to be tachycardic and bleeding freely from his mouth. His respirations are
