NR 507 Final Exam Study Guide/NR 507 Final Exam Study Guide.Download to score A+.(Gold level expert recommends)

1. Question : What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?   Student Answer:  Encephalocele    Meningocele    Spina bifida occulta    Myelomeningocele   Instructor Explanation: Myelomeningocele is a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst containing meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord with its nerves through a defect in the posterior arch of a vertebra. The remaining options are not appropriate terms to identity the described condition.   Points Received: 0 of 2   Comments: Question 2. Question : What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue?   Student Answer:  Glomerular filtration rate    Hourly urine output    Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine    The specific gravity of the solute concentration of the urine   Instructor Explanation: The glomerular filtration rate provides the best estimate of the level of functioning of renal tissue. The other options are not used to assess renal tissue function.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 3. Question : Where are Langerhans cells found?   Student Answer:  Skin    Intestinal lining    Kidney    Thyroid   Instructor Explanation: Of the available options, only the skin is the location for Langerhans cells.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 4. Question : Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?   Student Answer:  Trachea    Segmental bronchi    Alveolocapillary membrane    Main bronchus   Instructor Explanation: Gas exchange occurs only across the alveolocapillary membrane.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 5. Question : The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:   Student Answer:  2 years    1 year    10 months    5 months   Instructor Explanation: The tonic neck reflex should be unobtainable by 5 months of age.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 6. Question : When renin is released, it is capable of which action?   Student Answer:  Inactivation of autoregulation    Direct activation of angiotensin II    Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)    Formation of angiotensin I   Instructor Explanation: When renin is released, it cleaves an -globulin (angiotensinogen produced by liver hepatocytes) in the plasma to form angiotensin I.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 7. Question : The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?   Student Answer:  Immunotope    Paratope    Epitope    Antigenitope   Instructor Explanation: The precise portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called its antigenic determinant or epitope. The other options are not used to identify this portion of the antigen.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 8. Question : Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?   Student Answer:  Syphilis    Herpes simplex virus    Chlamydia    Chancroid   Instructor Explanation: The coexistence of chlamydial infection with gonorrhea frequently occurs. No coexistence exists with the other options.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 9. Question : How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?   Student Answer:  Reticulocyte count    Serum transferring    Hemoglobin    Serum vitamin B12   Instructor Explanation: The effectiveness of cobalamin replacement therapy is determined by a rising reticulocyte count. The other options are not used as indicators of the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 10. Question : Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?   Student Answer:  Blood vessels    Epithelial cells    Connective tissue    Glandular tissue   Instructor Explanation: Only cancers arising from epithelial cells are called carcinomas.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 11. Question : Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?   Student Answer:  Viruses    Bacteria and fungi    Protozoa and Rickettsiae    Mycoplasma   Instructor Explanation: Only bacteria and fungi have the capacity to reproduce on the skin.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 12. Question : An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?   Student Answer:  Atrial septal defect (ASD)    Ventricular septal defect (VSD)    Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)    Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect   Instructor Explanation: Because most children with ASD are asymptomatic, diagnosis is usually made during a routine physical examination by the auscultation of a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur that reflects increased blood flow through the pulmonary valve. The location of the murmur is between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also characteristic of ASD, reflecting volume overload to the right ventricle and causing prolonged ejection time and a delay of pulmonic valve closure. The presentations of other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 13. Question : An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom?   Student Answer:  Intermittent murmur    Lack of symptoms    Need for surgical repair    Triad of congenital defects   Instructor Explanation: Infants with a small PDA usually remain asymptomatic; the other options are incorrect.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 14. Question : What is the function of erythrocytes?   Student Answer:  Tissue oxygenation    Hemostasis    Infection control    Allergy response   Instructor Explanation: Erythrocytes are solely responsible for tissue oxygenation.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 15. Question : Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?   Student Answer:  Liposarcoma, lipoma    Lipoma, liposarcoma    Adisarcoma, adipoma    Adipoma, adisarcoma   Instructor Explanation: In general, cancers are named according to the cell type from which they originate (e.g., lip for cancers that originate in adipose or fat tissue), whereas benign tumors use the suffix -oma. Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix sarcoma.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 16. Question : What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)?   Student Answer:  20%    25%    33%    50%   Instructor Explanation: A 25% chance exists with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with sickle cell trait will have SCD. Genetic counseling enables people with SCD or with the sickle cell trait to make informed decisions about transmitting this genetic disorder to their offspring.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 17. Question : What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?   Student Answer:  Nasal turbinates    Alveolar macrophages    Cilia    Irritant receptors on the nares   Instructor Explanation: The submucosal glands of the bronchial lining produce mucus, contributing to the mucous blanket that covers the bronchial epithelium. The ciliated epithelial cells rhythmically beat this mucous blanket toward the trachea and pharynx, where it can be swallowed or expectorated by coughing. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the pulmonary defense mechanism described.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 18. Question : The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?   Student Answer:  Posterior pituitary    Thyroid    Parathyroid    Anterior pituitary   Instructor Explanation: ADH, which is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland, controls the concentration of the final urine. ADH is not secreted by any of the other options.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 19. Question : Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?   Student Answer:  The virus does not circulate in the blood.    It does not have antibody receptors.    It resists agglutination.    The virus is a soluble antigen.   Instructor Explanation: Many viruses (e.g., measles, herpes) are inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection only because these viruses do not circulate in the bloodstream; rather, they remain inside infected cells, spreading by direct cell-to-cell contact.   Points Received: 0 of 2   Comments: Question 20. Question : Which renal change is found in older adults?   Student Answer:  Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate    Sharp decline in renal blood flow    Decrease in the number of nephrons    Decrease in urine output   Instructor Explanation: With aging, the number of nephrons decreases. The other options are not necessarily related to aging.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 21. Question : Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?   Student Answer:  IgA    IgE    IgG    IgM   Instructor Explanation: IgA can be divided into two subclasses, IgA1 and IgA2. IgA1 molecules are predominantly found in the blood, whereas IgA2 is the predominant class of antibody found in normal body secretions. The other options are not found in the substances identified in the question.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 22. Question : Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?   Student Answer:  Norepinephrine    Epinephrine    Cortisol    Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)   Instructor Explanation: Only the release of norepinephrine promotes arousal, increased vigilance, increased anxiety, and other protective emotional responses.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 23. Question : Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?   Student Answer:  The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport.    The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system.    The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake.    The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age.   Instructor Explanation: To protect the child against infectious agents both in utero and during the first few postnatal months, a system of active transport facilitates the passage of maternal antibodies into the fetal circulation. The antibodies are transmitted via the placenta and are related to the mother’s immune system. The infant’s own IgG-related antibodies reach protective levels by 6 months of age.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 24. Question : The function of the tumor cell marker is to:   Student Answer:  Provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer.    Treat certain types of cancer.    Predict where cancers will develop.    Screen individuals at high risk for cancer.   Instructor Explanation: Screening and identifying individuals at high risk for cancer are ways tumor markers can be used. These markers are not used to definitively diagnosis or treat cancer and are not useful in predicting specific sites of cancer development.   Points Received: 0 of 2   Comments: Question 25. Question : Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection?   Student Answer:  Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails.    Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections.    Fungal infections release endotoxins.    Vaccines prevent fungal infections.   Instructor Explanation: The host defense against fungal infection includes the fungistatic properties of neutrophils and macrophages. T lymphocytes are crucial in limiting the extent of infection and producing cytokines to further activate macrophages. The other options are not true of fungal infections.   Points Received: 0 of 2   Comments: Question 26. Question : Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?   Student Answer:  The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.    A thin squamous epithelial lining develops.    Vaginal pH becomes more acidic.    Estrogen levels are low.   Instructor Explanation: At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial lining thickens. These changes are maintained until menopause (cessation of menstruation), at which time the pH rises again to more alkaline levels and the epithelium thins out. Therefore protection from infection is greatest during the years when a woman is most likely to be sexually active. Estrogen does not play a role in infection protection.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 27. Question : The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term?   Student Answer:  Relativity    Survivability    Prevalence    Incidence   Instructor Explanation: The prevalence rate is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at a specific point in time. Thus both the incidence rate and the length of the survival period in affected individuals determine prevalence. The description in the question does not relate to any of the other options.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 28. Question : Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?   Student Answer:  Sodium intake    Physical inactivity    Psychosocial stress    Obesity   Instructor Explanation: The most important environmental risk factors for hypertension are increased sodium intake, decreased physical activity, psychosocial stress, and obesity. However, obesity is, itself, influenced by genes and the environment.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 29. Question : Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n):   Student Answer:  Atretic follicle    Thecal follicle    Corpus luteum    Functional scar   Instructor Explanation: Having ejected a mature ovum, the only resulting structure is the corpus luteum.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 30. Question : The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?   Student Answer:  Osteogenesis imperfecta    Rickets    Osteochondrosis    Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease   Instructor Explanation: Of the available options, only rickets is a disorder in which growing bone fails to become mineralized (ossified) and results in soft bones and skeletal deformity.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 31. Question : What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding?   Student Answer:  Tolerance    Perception    Threshold    Dominance   Instructor Explanation: Pain tolerance is the duration of time or the intensity of pain that an individual will endure before initiating overt pain responses. The other options are not related to the duration or intensity of pain endured before the pain is recognized.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 32. Question : Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of:   Student Answer:  Magnesium    Calcium    Sodium    Water   Instructor Explanation: In the kidney, aldosterone primarily acts on the epithelial cells of the nephron-collecting duct to increase sodium ion reabsorption. This action cannot be said of the other options.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 33. Question : Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke?   Student Answer:  Hemorrhagic    Thrombotic    Embolic    Lacunar   Instructor Explanation: High-risk sources for the onset of embolic stroke are atrial fibrillation (15% to 25% of strokes), left ventricular aneurysm or thrombus, left atrial thrombus, recent myocardial infarction, rheumatic valvular disease, mechanical prosthetic valve, nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis, bacterial endocarditis, patent foramen ovale, and primary intracardiac tumors. These are not risk factors for the other options provided.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 34. Question : Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia?   Student Answer:  Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally    Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles    Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps    Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue   Instructor Explanation: Widespread joint and muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points are characteristics of fibromyalgia, a chronic musculoskeletal syndrome. Increased sensitivity to touch (i.e., tender points), the absence of systemic or localized inflammation, and fatigue and sleep disturbances are common. Fatigue is profound. The remaining options include symptoms not generally associated with fibromyalgia.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 35. Question : Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?   Student Answer:  Heat cramps    Heat stroke    Malignant hyperthermia    Heat exhaustion   Instructor Explanation: Of the options presented, only heat exhaustion, or collapse, is a result of prolonged high core or environmental temperatures resulting in dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 36. Question : What is the leading cause of infertility in women?   Student Answer:  Pelvic inflammatory disease    Endometriosis    Salpingitis    Polycystic ovary syndrome   Instructor Explanation: Polycystic ovary syndrome remains one of the most common endocrine disturbances affecting women, especially young women, and is a leading cause of infertility in the United States.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 37. Question : Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone?   Student Answer:  Thyroxine    Aldosterone    Follicle-stimulating hormone    Insulin   Instructor Explanation: Peptide or protein hormones, such as insulin, pituitary, hypothalamic, and parathyroid, are water soluble and circulate in free (unbound) forms. All the remaining options are fat-soluble hormones.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 38. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?   Student Answer:  Hypothalamus    Anterior pituitary    Mammary glands    Posterior pituitary   Instructor Explanation: Prolactin-releasing factor targets the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate the secretion of prolactin. The other remaining options are incorrect.   Points Received: 0 of 2   Comments: Question 39. Question : What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?   Student Answer:  Diet high in saturated fats    Increased production of cholesterol by the liver    Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces    Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood   Instructor Explanation: A reduction in the number of functional LDL receptors on cell surfaces causes FH. Lacking the normal number of LDL receptors, cellular cholesterol uptake is reduced and circulating cholesterol levels increase (see Box 5-3). The other options are not the basis for developing familial FH.   Points Received: 0 of 2   Comments: Question 40. Question : Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk?   Student Answer:  Genetic    Empirical    Relative    Modifiable   Instructor Explanation: Obesity is a modifiable risk factor for many diseases including heart disease, stroke, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. The other terms do not apply.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 41. Question : Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction?   Student Answer:  Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation    Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling    Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction    Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation   Instructor Explanation: Muscle contraction is a four-step process: excitation, coupling, contraction, and relaxation.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 42. Question : Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism?   Student Answer:  Twofold    Threefold    Fourfold    Tenfold   Instructor Explanation: Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent, even when raised by nonalcoholic parents, have a fourfold increased risk of developing the disorder.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 43. Question : Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones?   Student Answer:  Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)    Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)    Luteinizing hormone (LH)    Estrogen   Instructor Explanation: Extrahypothalamic factors cause the hypothalamus to secrete GnRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete gonadotropins—FSH and LH. These hormones, in turn, stimulate the gonads (ovaries or testes) to secrete female or male sex hormones.   Points Received: 0 of 2   Comments: Question 44. Question : A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?   Student Answer:  Turner    Klinefelter    Down    Fragile X   Instructor Explanation: A disorder in the chromosome (47, XXY karyotype) results in a disorder known as Klinefelter syndrome. The correct option is the only one that accurately describes a genetic disorder that exhibits the described genetic configuration.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 45. Question : Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?   Student Answer:  Blunted affect    Auditory hallucinations    Poverty of speech    Lack of social interaction   Instructor Explanation: Positive symptoms frequently occur during a psychotic episode, when an individual loses touch with reality and experiences something that should be absent (e.g., hallucinations). The remaining options are classified as negative symptoms.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 46. Question : What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?   Student Answer:  Agnosia    Aphasia    Akinesia    Dysphasia   Instructor Explanation: Aphasia is the loss of the comprehension or production of language. The remaining options are not terms used to describe this loss of function.   Points Received: 0 of 2   Comments: Question 47. Question : Consanguinity refers to the mating of persons:   Student Answer:  Who are unrelated    When one has an autosomal dominant disorder    Having common family relations    When one has a chromosomal abnormality   Instructor Explanation: Consanguinity refers to the mating of two related individuals, and the offspring of such matings are said to be inbred. The correct option is the only one that accurately identifies consanguinity as it relates to human mating.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 48. Question : The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain?   Student Answer:  Thalamus    Brainstem    Frontal lobe    Hypothalamus   Instructor Explanation: A small group of hypothalamic nerve cells, the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), controls the timing of the sleep-wake cycle and coordinates this cycle with circadian rhythms (24-hour rhythm cycles) in areas of the brain and other tissues. The remaining options do not fulfill this objective.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 49. Question : Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?   Student Answer:  Sodium    Potassium    Calcium    Magnesium   Instructor Explanation: Contraction begins as the calcium ions combine with troponin, a reaction that overcomes the inhibitory function of the troponin-tropomyosin system. This selection is the only option that has such a direct association with muscle contraction.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 50. Question : Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means?   Student Answer:  Systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney    Bacteria traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys    Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder    Colonization of the bladder when urine is static   Instructor Explanation: Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in girls occur as a result of perineal bacteria, especially Escherichia coli, ascending the urethra. None of the other options represent the means by which bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 51. Question : A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?   Student Answer:  3    6    9    12   Instructor Explanation: GAD is diagnosed when an individual spends at least 6 months worrying excessively and exhibits at least three of the six symptoms. Although 3 months is not sufficient time, the remaining options are excessive.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 52. Question : What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children?   Student Answer:  Periorbital edema    Scrotal or labial edema    Frothy urine    Ascites   Instructor Explanation: Onset of nephritic syndrome is insidious, with periorbital edema as the first sign of the disorder. None of the other options represent the first indication of nephritic syndrome in children.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 53. Question : An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?   Student Answer:  Chorionic    Alpha fetoprotein    Amniotic    Embryonic   Instructor Explanation: Other disorders can be detected with this procedure. These include most neural tube defects, which cause an elevation of alpha fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid, and hundreds of diseases caused by mutations of single genes. The correct option is the only one that accurately identifies the protein responsible for a neural tube defect.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 54. Question : What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases?   Student Answer:  10%    30%    50%    70%   Instructor Explanation: The recurrence risk for autosomal dominant diseases is usually 50%.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 55. Question : Which term is used to identify the temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact?   Student Answer:  Dislocation    Subluxation    Malunion    Nonunion   Instructor Explanation: Dislocation is the temporary displacement of a bone from its normal position in a joint. If the contact between the two surfaces is only partially lost, then the injury is referred to as a subluxation. This selection is the only option that identifies the temporary displacement of two bones, causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 56. Question : The tear in a ligament is referred to as a:   Student Answer:  Fracture    Strain    Disunion    Sprain   Instructor Explanation: Ligament tears are commonly known as sprains. None of the other options are associated with this damage.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 57. Question : Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults?   Student Answer:  Less water is absorbed from the colon in children.    Fluid reserves are smaller in children.    Children have a higher fluid volume intake.    Children have diarrhea more often than adults.   Instructor Explanation: Infants have low fluid reserves and relatively rapid peristalsis and metabolism. Therefore the danger of dehydration is great. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies the reason prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 58. Question : The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?   Student Answer:  Ovarian    Lung    Uterine    Pancreatic   Instructor Explanation: BRCA1 mutations increase the risk of ovarian cancer among women (20% to 50% lifetime risk), and BRCA2 mutations also confer an increased risk of ovarian cancer (10% to 20% lifetime prevalence). BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are not currently believed to be linked with risks of lung, uterine, or pancreatic cancers.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 59. Question : Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell?   Student Answer:  Potassium    Calcium    Sodium    Phosphorus   Instructor Explanation: Insulin facilitates the intracellular transport of potassium, phosphate, and magnesium. Insulin does not facilitate the transport of the other electrolytes.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 60. Question : What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?   Student Answer:  Procallus    Joint capsule    Hematoma    Elastin fibers   Instructor Explanation: The joint capsule is made up of parallel, interlacing bundles of dense, white fibrous tissue. It is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels. None of the other options are associated with this structure.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 61. Question : Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?   Student Answer:  Cortisol    Oxytocin    Epinephrine    Growth hormone   Instructor Explanation: Cortisol and adrenal androgens are lipid-soluble hormones and are primarily bound to a carrier or transport protein in circulation. The other options are water-soluble hormones.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 62. Question : The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?   Student Answer:  IgA    IgE    IgG    IgM   Instructor Explanation: Mucosal secretions from the cervix contain enzymes and antibodies—predominantly IgA.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 63. Question : The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder?   Student Answer:  Night terrors    Insomnia    Somnambulism    Enuresis   Instructor Explanation: Three types of parasomnias include arousal disorders such as confusional arousals, sleepwalking (somnambulism), and night terrors (dream anxiety attacks). The remaining options do not involve a sense or expression of fear or any other strong emotion.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 64. Question : What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?   Student Answer:  Small channels called canaliculi    Osteocytes within the lacunae    Tiny spaces within the lacunae    Haversian system   Instructor Explanation: The basic structural unit in compact bone is the haversian system (see Figure 43-4). This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the basic structure of compact bone.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 65. Question : Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:   Student Answer:  Hypothalamus    Anterior pituitary    Frontal lobe    Basal ganglia   Instructor Explanation: Parkinson disease is a commonly occurring degenerative disorder of the basal ganglia and not of any of the other brain structures.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 66. Question : Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?   Student Answer:  GCT    Pattern theory    Specificity theory    Neuromatrix theory   Instructor Explanation: Only the gate control theory (GCT) explains that a balance of impulses conducted to the spinal cord, where cells in the substantia gelatinosa function as a spinal gate, regulates pain transmission to higher centers in the CNS.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 67. Question : Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?   Student Answer:  IgA    IgE    IgG    IgM   Instructor Explanation: Saliva contains only IgA, which helps prevent infection.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 68. Question : What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture?   Student Answer:  Idiopathic    Incomplete    Pathologic    Greenstick   Instructor Explanation: Only a pathologic fracture is a break at the site of a preexisting abnormality, usually by force that would not fracture a normal bone.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 69. Question : An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?   Student Answer:  Congenital aganglionic megacolon    Intussusception    Malrotation    Volvulus   Instructor Explanation: Based on these data, the nurse should suspect intussusception. A single normal stool may be passed, evacuating the colon distal to the apex of the intussusception. After passing a normal stool, 60% of infants will pass “currant jelly” stools, which appear dark and gelatinous because of their blood and mucus content. Intussusception is the only option that describes the symptoms listed.   Points Received: 2 of 2   Comments: Question 70. Question : In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by:   Student Answer:  Disruption in the hypothalamus    Disruption of the pituitary    Deficit in estrogen or testosterone    Physiologic hormonal delays   Instructor Explanation: In 95% of children with delayed puberty, the delay is physiologic; that is, hormonal levels are normal and the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is intact, but maturation is slowly happening. This option is the only answer that accurately describes the most common cause of delayed puberty.