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Examen

ANCC EXAM 3 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED 100- VERIFIED

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Escrito en
2025/2026

ANCC EXAM 3 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED 100% VERIFIED

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ANCC
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Institución
ANCC
Grado
ANCC

Información del documento

Subido en
21 de noviembre de 2025
Número de páginas
98
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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Preguntas y respuestas

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ANCC EXAM 3 QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS 2026-2027 A+
GRADED 100% VERIFIED LATEST
EDITION
A 9-month-old female infant presents to the clinic for a routine well-child visit. Six months ago, she
was prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) due to gastroesophageal reflux and poor weight gain. At the
present visit, her parents report that she is drinking approximately 24 ounces of formula daily and
eating some solid foods. They report no current issues with reflux. While reviewing the patient's
growth chart, the nurse practitioner notes steady and appropriate weight gain over the past 6
months. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

A.

Continue omeprazole (Prilosec) as prescribed

Incorrect

B.

Decrease the dose of omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in 3 weeks

Correct

C.

Discontinue omeprazole (Prilosec) and prescribe metoclopramide (Reglan)

Incorrect

D.

Discontinue omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in 3 months - ANS -Decrease the dose of
omeprazole (Prilosec) and reevaluate in 3 weeks



A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for a routine checkup. He has a history of smoking one pack
of cigarettes per day for the past 40 years. He reports no discomfort today. Which of the following is
the most appropriate recommendation regarding abdominal aortic aneurysm screening for this
patient?

A.

Advise him to quit smoking but defer screening since he is asymptomatic

,Incorrect

B.

No screening necessary, as he is beyond the recommended age

Incorrect

C.

Order an abdominal U/S for screening today

Correct

D.

Perform a physical examination of the abdomen to assess for a pulsatile mass - ANS -Order an
abdominal U/S for screening today



Which of the following is the most important first step when evaluating a 15-year-old girl with a 4-
month history of secondary amenorrhea?

A.

Checking weight

Incorrect

B.

Measuring FSH

Incorrect

C.

Measuring human chorionic gonadotropin levels

Correct

D.

Measuring TSH - ANS -Measuring human chorionic gonadotropin levels



While reading a journal article, a nurse practitioner comes across a section discussing the efficacy of
a new drug. The article mentions a P value of .03 in relation to the drug's effect. Which of the
following best defines what a P value is?

A.

,A measure of the relationship between two variables

Incorrect

B.

The odds of an event in one group versus another

Incorrect

C.

The percentage of patients who responded to the drug

Incorrect

D.

The probability that observed results occurred by chance - ANS -The probability that observed
results occurred by chance



A 47-year-old woman presents with 4 days of high fever, headache, and myalgias. She developed a
blanching erythematous rash with macules on her wrists and ankles that spread to her trunk 2 days
ago. She reports no history of overseas travel but was camping in Arkansas last weekend. Which of
the following is the most appropriate treatment for the suspected diagnosis?

A.

Ceftriaxone

Incorrect

B.

Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

Correct

C.

Erythromycin (Erythrocin)

Incorrect

D.

Vancomycin (Vancocin) - ANS -Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

, A 36-year-old G4P3 woman presents for a routine prenatal visit at 30 weeks gestation. She was
diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus at 26 weeks gestation. The nurse practitioner reviews
the patient's vital signs and blood glucose log and orders lab work. Which of the following findings
indicates effective management of this condition?

A.

1-hour postprandial blood glucose levels < 200 mg/dL

Incorrect

B.

2-hour postprandial glucose levels < 100 mg/dL

Incorrect

C.

Daily fasting glucose levels of < 95 mg/dL

Correct

D.

Weight loss of 2 pounds since the last visit - ANS -Daily fasting glucose levels of < 95 mg/dL



A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with spotting for 2 weeks. Her last menstrual cycle was 8
years ago. She reports that she is sexually active with one partner. A pelvic examination reveals
atrophic vaginal mucosa without evidence of bleeding, and adnexal masses are not palpable. The
vulvar and urethral examination is unremarkable. Stool guaiac testing is negative. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?

A.

Bladder cancer

Incorrect

B.

Endometrial carcinoma

Correct

C.

Ovarian fibroma

Incorrect
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