ONS CHEMOTHERAPY BIOTHERAPY PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION

ONS CHEMOTHERAPY BIOTHERAPY PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION 1. name the 4 phases of the cell cycle - ANSWER G1 Phase S Phase G2 Phase M Phase 2. name the 4 stages of mitosis - ANSWER Prophase Metaphase Anaphase Telophase 3. Which is the longest phase of the cell cycle, lasting about 10 hours - ANSWER S Phase 4. What is the shortest phase of the cell cycle - ANSWER M Phase (Mitosis) 5. these cells have receptors that determine if cells of cells they encounter are self or non-self. Their role is to destroy non-self cells - ANSWER Natural Killer Cells 6. Mitosis phase in which Nuclear envelope has disappeared, and chromosomes move toward the cell equator. Sister chromatids have not separated. The metaphase checkpoint ensures that the chromosomes are aligned properly before separation. - ANSWER Metaphase 7. Mitosis phase in which Centrioles move toward opposite poles, and the nuclear envelope breaks down. - ANSWER Prophase 8. Mitosis phase in which Two sister chromatids separate into chromosomes. - ANSWER Ananphase 9. Mitosis phase in which Nuclear envelope has disappeared, and chromosomes move toward the cell equator. Sister chromatids have not separated. A checkpoint ensures that the chromosomes are aligned properly before separation. - ANSWER Metaphase 10. During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur - ANSWER S Phase 11. proteins that control the cell cycle - ANSWER cyclins 12. pluripotent stem cell - ANSWER Cell capable of giving rise to any of the specialized cell types in the body. 13. nonspecific immunity - ANSWER phagocytosis and inflammation (2nd line of defense - Also 1st line of defense skin...) 14. _______ precursors, or "pre-cells," mature into red blood cells (RBCs), platelets, and white blood cells (WBCs). - ANSWER Myeloid 15. _____ precursors, or "pre-cells," mature into specialized WBCs called lymphocytes. - ANSWER Lymphoid 16. During which phase of the cell cycle do cells enlarge and pass a checkpoint that determines the cell is ready to divide - ANSWER G2 phase 17. During which phase of the cell cycle do cells enlarge and pass a checkpoint that determines the cell is ready to divide - ANSWER G2 phase 18. three types of granulocytes - ANSWER neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils 19. _________, including Natural killer cells, granulocytes and macrophages are the second line of defense in the immune system (after skin, mucus membranes and gut flora) - ANSWER Phagocytes 20. nonspecific immunity - ANSWER phagocytosis and inflammation (2nd line of defense) 21. Learned specific immunity - ANSWER 3rd line of defense which includes antibodies and lymphocytes 22. 2 types of lymphocytes - ANSWER T cells and B cells 23. Define neoadjuvant therapy - ANSWER Treatment is given prior to surgery to shrink the tumor 24. Define adjuvant therapy - ANSWER Additional cancer treatment given after the primary treatment to lower the risk that the cancer reoccur 25. 3 subcategories of alkylating agents: - ANSWER 1. Nitrogen mustards 2. Platinum-based agents (do not possess an alkyl group but still termed alkylating agents as they work similarly) 3. Nitrosoureas 26. Common alkylating agents: - ANSWER Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) Ifosfamide (Ifex) Bendamustine (Treanda) 27. Common platinum-based agents: - ANSWER Cisplatin (Platinol) Carboplatin (Paraplatin) 28. What is unique about nitrosoureas agents? - ANSWER Able to cross the blood-brain barrier; can be effective in treating some brain tumors 29. Common nitrosoureas agents: - ANSWER Carmustine (BiCNU) Lomustine (CeeNu) Streptozocin (Zanosar) 30. Hypersensitivity can occur with late doses of: - ANSWER Carboplatin 31. These agents are typically categorized as highly emetogenic: - ANSWER 1. Alkylating agents 2. Nitrosoureas 32. Pre-administration labs for alkylating agents and nitrosoureas: - ANSWER BUN Creatinine CBC w/ diff 33. What is the medication Mesna used for? - ANSWER Bladder protectant with administration of cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide 34. Instruct pts receiving ________ to avoid exposure to cold air and consuming cold fluids for 3-4 days following treatment - ANSWER Oxaliplatin 35. How do antimetabolites function? - ANSWER By blocking DNA and RNA growth by interfering with enzymes needed for normal cell metabolism 36. Antimetabolites work in the ___ phase. - ANSWER S 37. Common side effects of antimetabolites: - ANSWER Myelosuppression GI toxicities Photosensitivity Hand-foot syndrome 38. Common antimetabolite drugs: - ANSWER Azacitidine Capecitabine 5-FU Cytarabine Decitabine Methotrexate 39. The institute for Safe Medication Practices recommends what route of administration for vincristine? - ANSWER IV piggyback via gravity 40. Anthracycline antitumor abx work by: - ANSWER Interfering with enzymes necessary for DNA to replicate in ALL phases of the cell cycle 41. The two major classifications of antitumor antibiotics are: - ANSWER Anthracyclines Non-anthracyclines 42. Common anthracycline antitumor abx: - ANSWER Daunorubicin Doxorubicin Epirubicin Idarubicin 43. The antitumor abx ___________ is not an anthracycline, but has anthracycline-type properties. - ANSWER Mitoxantrone 44. Common non-anthracycline antitumor abx: - ANSWER Actinomycin D Mitomycin C Bleomycin 45. Monitoring necessary with doxorubicin: - ANSWER Vesicant -- extravasation Cardiac function Lifetime dose tracking (cardiotoxicity) 46. Lifetime dose of doxorubicin should not exceed: - ANSWER 550 mg/m^2 47. What cardiac protectant medication can be administered prior to doxorubicin? - ANSWER Dexrazoxane 48. Significant side effects of doxorubicin are: - ANSWER Cardiotoxicity N/V Mucositis Diarrhea Severe myelosuppression Hepatic impairment Secondary cancers 49. Monitoring necessary with bleomycin: - ANSWER Pulmonary toxicity Hypersensitivity reactions (esp. in lymphoma patients) Cutaneous reactions Lifetime dose tracking (pulmonary toxicity) 50. Pulmonary fibrosis is possible when the lifetime dose of bleomycin exceeds: - ANSWER 400 units 51. What 6 patient characteristics make CINV more likely? - ANSWER 1. Younger than 50 years 2. Hx of low alcohol intake 3. Female gender 4. Hx of morning sickness during pregnancy 5. Prone to motion sickness 6. Previous chemotherapy 52. Types of CINV: - ANSWER Acute Delayed Breakthrough Anticipatory Refractory