HONDROS NUR 212 EXAM 1 — COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS (2025/2026)
Introduction
NUR 212 is the first-semester cornerstone course in the Hondros College of Nursing ASN
program.
Exam 1 evaluates mastery of foundational nursing concepts essential for safe, entry-level
practice. Core domains assessed include:
• Comprehensive patient assessment and accurate vital-sign interpretation
• Evidence-based infection-control and safety practices
• Introductory pharmacology and dosage-calculation competency
• Basic pathophysiology of frequently encountered conditions
• Clinical reasoning used to prioritize and initiate appropriate interventions
• Legal-ethical responsibilities and professional standards of nursing practice
The 60 original questions below mirror the 2025/2026 blueprint, are scenario-based, and
include concise rationales linked to current evidence and Hondros course outcomes. Aiming for
an A+ means scoring ≥90 % (≥54/60). Mastery of this set is designed to reach that benchmark.
Question 1
A nurse obtains a BP of 188/110 mmHg on a 55-year-old male who denies pain. Which action is
priority?
A. Recheck with a manual cuff in 5 min
B. Start large-bore IV access
C. Notify provider immediately
D. Give sublingual nitroglycerin
Answer: C. Notify provider immediately
Rationale: Systolic ≥180 or diastolic ≥110 meets ACC/AHA criteria for hypertensive urgency;
provider notification precedes intervention. Recheck alone delays care; IV/notropes are for
emergency, not urgency.
Question 2
While counting respirations the patient begins speaking. The nurse should:
A. Restart count for full 30 sec after conversation ends
B. Document count obtained and mark “verbal”
C. Estimate rate by observation while pretending to take pulse
D. Ask patient to breathe through nose to minimize movement
pg. 1
,Answer: C. Estimate rate by observation while pretending to take pulse
Rationale: Speaking falsely elevates rate; best practice is covert observation (still 30 sec × 2) to
prevent conscious alteration. Restarting invites fatigue; documentation must reflect accurate
data.
Question 3
A post-op client has T 38.4 °C (101.1 °F) at 0800. Which finding best supports intervention at
this time?
A. HR 88 / BP 118/78 (baseline)
B. WBC 15,000 mm³ (elevated)
C. Pain 6/10 at incision
D. Skin warm/dry
Answer: B. WBC 15,000 mm³ (elevated)
Rationale: Fever + leukocytosis suggests systemic infection, prompting cultures/antibiotics.
Fever alone (D) or pain (C) may be expected post-op; isolated vitals (A) are unchanged.
Question 4
A nurse prepares to give 40 mEq KCl IV. Pharmacy sent 40 mEq in 100 mL NS. What is the
maximum recommended concentration for peripheral IV administration?
A. 10 mEq/100 mL
B. 20 mEq/100 mL
C. 40 mEq/100 mL
D. 80 mEq/100 mL
Answer: A. 10 mEq/100 mL
Rationale: INS standards limit peripheral KCl to ≤10 mEq/100 mL (0.1 mEq/mL) to reduce
vein irritation and pain. Current bag (40 mEq/100 mL = 0.4 mEq/mL) must be further diluted or
given centrally.
Question 5
A patient is on contact precautions for MRSA in a wound. Which action is appropriate?
A. Wear gown/gloves only when entering room
B. Keep door closed at all times
C. Use dedicated stethoscope left in room
D. Mask all visitors
Answer: C. Use dedicated stethoscope left in room
Rationale: Contact precautions require dedicated equipment to prevent cross-transmission.
Gown/gloves only (A) omits equipment issue; door closed (B) is airborne; masking visitors (D)
unnecessary for contact.
Question 6
pg. 2
, A nurse notes 0.5 mL of air in a 10 mL IV line before injecting hydromorphone. The best action
is:
A. Aspirate air and discard syringe
B. Clamp line, remove air, reattach
C. Inject; volume is negligible peripherally
D. Turn stop-cock to expel air into bag
Answer: C. Inject; volume is negligible peripherally
Rationale: <1 mL air in peripheral line is harmless; excessive manipulation increases infection
risk. Central lines warrant stricter air removal.
Question 7
A 70 kg patient is prescribed cefazolin 1 g IV q8h. The vial reads 1 g/10 mL. How many mL per
dose?
A. 1 mL
B. 5 mL
C. 10 mL
D. 20 mL
Answer: C. 10 mL
Rationale: Simple unit conversion: 1 g ordered ÷ 1 g/10 mL = 10 mL.
Question 8
A patient’s radial pulse is irregular at 92 bpm. The nurse should next:
A. Auscultate apical pulse for 30 sec
B. Take BP in both arms
C. Check capillary refill
D. Obtain 12-lead ECG
Answer: A. Auscultate apical pulse for 30 sec
Rationale: Irregular peripheral pulses require apical assessment to confirm rate/rhythm; 30
sec × 2 gives accurate rate. ECG (D) is provider-ordered, not initial nursing action.
Question 9
A type 2 diabetic asks why bedtime snack is encouraged. The nurse’s best response:
A. Prevents dawn phenomenon
B. Reduces risk of nocturnal hypoglycemia from long-acting insulin
C. Increases morning blood sugar for energy
D. Helps weight loss
Answer: B. Reduces risk of nocturnal hypoglycemia from long-acting insulin
Rationale: Even type 2s on basal insulin can experience nocturnal hypoglycemia; snack
provides safety. Dawn phenomenon (A) occurs mornings, unrelated to snack rationale.
pg. 3
SOLUTIONS (2025/2026)
Introduction
NUR 212 is the first-semester cornerstone course in the Hondros College of Nursing ASN
program.
Exam 1 evaluates mastery of foundational nursing concepts essential for safe, entry-level
practice. Core domains assessed include:
• Comprehensive patient assessment and accurate vital-sign interpretation
• Evidence-based infection-control and safety practices
• Introductory pharmacology and dosage-calculation competency
• Basic pathophysiology of frequently encountered conditions
• Clinical reasoning used to prioritize and initiate appropriate interventions
• Legal-ethical responsibilities and professional standards of nursing practice
The 60 original questions below mirror the 2025/2026 blueprint, are scenario-based, and
include concise rationales linked to current evidence and Hondros course outcomes. Aiming for
an A+ means scoring ≥90 % (≥54/60). Mastery of this set is designed to reach that benchmark.
Question 1
A nurse obtains a BP of 188/110 mmHg on a 55-year-old male who denies pain. Which action is
priority?
A. Recheck with a manual cuff in 5 min
B. Start large-bore IV access
C. Notify provider immediately
D. Give sublingual nitroglycerin
Answer: C. Notify provider immediately
Rationale: Systolic ≥180 or diastolic ≥110 meets ACC/AHA criteria for hypertensive urgency;
provider notification precedes intervention. Recheck alone delays care; IV/notropes are for
emergency, not urgency.
Question 2
While counting respirations the patient begins speaking. The nurse should:
A. Restart count for full 30 sec after conversation ends
B. Document count obtained and mark “verbal”
C. Estimate rate by observation while pretending to take pulse
D. Ask patient to breathe through nose to minimize movement
pg. 1
,Answer: C. Estimate rate by observation while pretending to take pulse
Rationale: Speaking falsely elevates rate; best practice is covert observation (still 30 sec × 2) to
prevent conscious alteration. Restarting invites fatigue; documentation must reflect accurate
data.
Question 3
A post-op client has T 38.4 °C (101.1 °F) at 0800. Which finding best supports intervention at
this time?
A. HR 88 / BP 118/78 (baseline)
B. WBC 15,000 mm³ (elevated)
C. Pain 6/10 at incision
D. Skin warm/dry
Answer: B. WBC 15,000 mm³ (elevated)
Rationale: Fever + leukocytosis suggests systemic infection, prompting cultures/antibiotics.
Fever alone (D) or pain (C) may be expected post-op; isolated vitals (A) are unchanged.
Question 4
A nurse prepares to give 40 mEq KCl IV. Pharmacy sent 40 mEq in 100 mL NS. What is the
maximum recommended concentration for peripheral IV administration?
A. 10 mEq/100 mL
B. 20 mEq/100 mL
C. 40 mEq/100 mL
D. 80 mEq/100 mL
Answer: A. 10 mEq/100 mL
Rationale: INS standards limit peripheral KCl to ≤10 mEq/100 mL (0.1 mEq/mL) to reduce
vein irritation and pain. Current bag (40 mEq/100 mL = 0.4 mEq/mL) must be further diluted or
given centrally.
Question 5
A patient is on contact precautions for MRSA in a wound. Which action is appropriate?
A. Wear gown/gloves only when entering room
B. Keep door closed at all times
C. Use dedicated stethoscope left in room
D. Mask all visitors
Answer: C. Use dedicated stethoscope left in room
Rationale: Contact precautions require dedicated equipment to prevent cross-transmission.
Gown/gloves only (A) omits equipment issue; door closed (B) is airborne; masking visitors (D)
unnecessary for contact.
Question 6
pg. 2
, A nurse notes 0.5 mL of air in a 10 mL IV line before injecting hydromorphone. The best action
is:
A. Aspirate air and discard syringe
B. Clamp line, remove air, reattach
C. Inject; volume is negligible peripherally
D. Turn stop-cock to expel air into bag
Answer: C. Inject; volume is negligible peripherally
Rationale: <1 mL air in peripheral line is harmless; excessive manipulation increases infection
risk. Central lines warrant stricter air removal.
Question 7
A 70 kg patient is prescribed cefazolin 1 g IV q8h. The vial reads 1 g/10 mL. How many mL per
dose?
A. 1 mL
B. 5 mL
C. 10 mL
D. 20 mL
Answer: C. 10 mL
Rationale: Simple unit conversion: 1 g ordered ÷ 1 g/10 mL = 10 mL.
Question 8
A patient’s radial pulse is irregular at 92 bpm. The nurse should next:
A. Auscultate apical pulse for 30 sec
B. Take BP in both arms
C. Check capillary refill
D. Obtain 12-lead ECG
Answer: A. Auscultate apical pulse for 30 sec
Rationale: Irregular peripheral pulses require apical assessment to confirm rate/rhythm; 30
sec × 2 gives accurate rate. ECG (D) is provider-ordered, not initial nursing action.
Question 9
A type 2 diabetic asks why bedtime snack is encouraged. The nurse’s best response:
A. Prevents dawn phenomenon
B. Reduces risk of nocturnal hypoglycemia from long-acting insulin
C. Increases morning blood sugar for energy
D. Helps weight loss
Answer: B. Reduces risk of nocturnal hypoglycemia from long-acting insulin
Rationale: Even type 2s on basal insulin can experience nocturnal hypoglycemia; snack
provides safety. Dawn phenomenon (A) occurs mornings, unrelated to snack rationale.
pg. 3
