D115 MASTER SET-ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
FOR THE ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSE| 340+ ALL
QUESTIONS & CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS 2025
UPDATE NEW!!!
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
Correct answer > Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? Correct answer >
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? Correct answer
> Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic
information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is
a form
of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a
normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? Correct answer > Cri du chat
syndrome (translated as
,"cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the
syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? Correct answer
> The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son.
Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give
to a female) to cancel it out.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population? Correct answer > Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an
actual occurrence of disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? Correct answer > - Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. Correct answer > The imprinted gene is the silent
gene of a gene pair.
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma- tion and wound healing?
Correct answer > The underlying chronic illness exists.
,A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? Correct answer > -
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
11. What Phagocytes bacteria? Correct answer > Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? Correct answer > Helper T cells
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? Correct answer > Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? Correct answer > The complement pathway is activated in re- sponse to blood incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? Correct answer > An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections? Correct answer
> Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? Correct
answer > Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing
may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test
due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high
3 m/
m86
, likelihood of exposure is suspected.
m m m m
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins? Correct answer > Exotoxins are released during bacte-
m m m m m m m m m m m m m m
rial growth.
m m
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon
m m m m m m m m m m m m m
cancer? Correct answer > The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
m m m m m m m m
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to
m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m
develop? Correct answer > Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
m m m m m m m
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. Correct answer > UV light causes
m m m m m m m m m m m mm m m m m m
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit
m m m m m m m m m m m m
4 m/
m86
FOR THE ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSE| 340+ ALL
QUESTIONS & CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS 2025
UPDATE NEW!!!
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
Correct answer > Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? Correct answer >
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? Correct answer
> Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic
information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is
a form
of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a
normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? Correct answer > Cri du chat
syndrome (translated as
,"cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the
syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? Correct answer
> The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son.
Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give
to a female) to cancel it out.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population? Correct answer > Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an
actual occurrence of disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? Correct answer > - Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. Correct answer > The imprinted gene is the silent
gene of a gene pair.
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma- tion and wound healing?
Correct answer > The underlying chronic illness exists.
,A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? Correct answer > -
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
11. What Phagocytes bacteria? Correct answer > Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? Correct answer > Helper T cells
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? Correct answer > Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? Correct answer > The complement pathway is activated in re- sponse to blood incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? Correct answer > An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections? Correct answer
> Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? Correct
answer > Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing
may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test
due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high
3 m/
m86
, likelihood of exposure is suspected.
m m m m
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins? Correct answer > Exotoxins are released during bacte-
m m m m m m m m m m m m m m
rial growth.
m m
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon
m m m m m m m m m m m m m
cancer? Correct answer > The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
m m m m m m m m
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to
m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m
develop? Correct answer > Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m m
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
m m m m m m m
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. Correct answer > UV light causes
m m m m m m m m m m m mm m m m m m
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit
m m m m m m m m m m m m
4 m/
m86
