Fall SemeSter 2025 | UNISa aSSIgNmeNt |
INF3708 – SoFtware Project maNagemeNt |
comPlete aNSwerS & UPdated StUdy gUIde | dUe
November/december 2025
Question 1:
Which of the following is a key artifact produced during the project initiation phase?
A) Project Charter
B) Risk Management Plan
C) Status Report
D) Quality Assurance Plan
Correct Option: A) Project Charter
Rationale: The Project Charter is a foundational document in project initiation that
outlines the purpose, objectives, and high-level requirements of the project. It formally
authorizes the project, providing the project manager with the authority to allocate
resources and implement plans.
Question 2:
In what phase of the project management lifecycle would you conduct a feasibility
study?
A) Execution
B) Monitoring and Controlling
C) Initiation
D) Closing
Correct Option: C) Initiation
Rationale: A feasibility study is typically performed in the initiation phase to evaluate
the viability of a project. This involves assessing technical, financial, and operational
aspects to determine whether the project should proceed.
Question 3:
Which of the following best describes the Agile methodology?
A) A linear approach to software development
B) An iterative and incremental approach
C) A traditional waterfall model
D) A strictly sequential process
Correct Option: B) An iterative and incremental approach
,Rationale: The Agile methodology emphasizes flexibility and customer satisfaction
through iterative development. Teams work in short cycles (sprints) and adjust to
changes quickly, allowing for continuous improvement and delivery.
Question 4:
What is the primary purpose of a risk management plan?
A) To ensure project compliance with regulations
B) To define the project scope
C) To identify, assess, and mitigate potential project risks
D) To outline communication strategies
Correct Option: C) To identify, assess, and mitigate potential project risks
Rationale: A risk management plan systematically identifies potential risks, assesses
their impact and likelihood, and outlines strategies to mitigate or respond to those risks.
It is crucial for minimizing negative outcomes during the project lifecycle.
Question 5:
Which technique is often used for estimating project duration in the context of project
scheduling?
A) PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)
B) SWOT Analysis
C) Feasibility Study
D) Waterfall Model
Correct Option: A) PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)
Rationale: PERT is a statistical tool used in project management to analyze the tasks
involved in completing a project, particularly when the duration of activities is
uncertain. It helps in estimating the shortest, most likely, and longest completion times,
facilitating accurate project scheduling.
Question 6:
Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Gantt charts in project
management?
A) Improved risk management
B) Visual representation of project timeline
C) Increased team collaboration
D) Detailed resource allocation
Correct Option: B) Visual representation of project timeline
,Rationale: Gantt charts provide a clear visual representation of the project timeline,
showing the duration of tasks and their dependencies. This helps project managers
track progress and communicate schedules to stakeholders effectively.
Question 7:
What is the main objective of the stakeholder analysis?
A) To create the project schedule
B) To identify and assess stakeholder influence and interest
C) To document project risks
D) To define project deliverables
Correct Option: B) To identify and assess stakeholder influence and interest
Rationale: Stakeholder analysis is conducted to identify key stakeholders, understand
their interests, influence, and expectations, and develop strategies to engage them
effectively throughout the project.
Question 8:
What does the triple constraint of project management refer to?
A) Scope, Quality, and Cost
B) Time, Cost, and Scope
C) Quality, Flexibility, and Budget
D) Resources, Time, and Quality
Correct Option: B) Time, Cost, and Scope
Rationale: The triple constraint refers to the three primary factors that constrain a
project: time, cost, and scope. Changes to one constraint will likely affect the others,
and effective management is necessary to balance them.
Question 9:
In the context of project management, what does “scope creep” refer to?
A) Delays in project timeline
B) Uncontrolled changes to project scope
C) A decrease in project quality
D) Identifying new stakeholders
Correct Option: B) Uncontrolled changes to project scope
, Rationale: Scope creep occurs when additional features or requirements are added to
a project without proper review or approval, which can lead to overruns in time and
budget, as well as quality issues.
Question 10:
Which of the following is NOT a component of a project management plan?
A) Scope baselines
B) Team performance reviews
C) Cost baseline
D) Schedule baseline
Correct Option: B) Team performance reviews
Rationale: A project management plan includes various baselines (scope, cost, and
schedule) to guide the project's execution. Team performance reviews, while important
for managing personnel, are not a formal component of the project management plan.
Question 11:
What does the term “milestone” in project management typically signify?
A) A completed project deliverable
B) A significant point or event in the project timeline
C) A risk event
D) A budget approval
Correct Option: B) A significant point or event in the project timeline
Rationale: Milestones are key events that mark important stages or achievements in a
project. They help track progress and serve as checkpoints for assessing ongoing
project performance.
Question 12:
Which Agile framework emphasizes the use of sprints for development?
A) Scrum
B) Kanban
C) Extreme Programming
D) Waterfall
Correct Option: A) Scrum
INF3708 – SoFtware Project maNagemeNt |
comPlete aNSwerS & UPdated StUdy gUIde | dUe
November/december 2025
Question 1:
Which of the following is a key artifact produced during the project initiation phase?
A) Project Charter
B) Risk Management Plan
C) Status Report
D) Quality Assurance Plan
Correct Option: A) Project Charter
Rationale: The Project Charter is a foundational document in project initiation that
outlines the purpose, objectives, and high-level requirements of the project. It formally
authorizes the project, providing the project manager with the authority to allocate
resources and implement plans.
Question 2:
In what phase of the project management lifecycle would you conduct a feasibility
study?
A) Execution
B) Monitoring and Controlling
C) Initiation
D) Closing
Correct Option: C) Initiation
Rationale: A feasibility study is typically performed in the initiation phase to evaluate
the viability of a project. This involves assessing technical, financial, and operational
aspects to determine whether the project should proceed.
Question 3:
Which of the following best describes the Agile methodology?
A) A linear approach to software development
B) An iterative and incremental approach
C) A traditional waterfall model
D) A strictly sequential process
Correct Option: B) An iterative and incremental approach
,Rationale: The Agile methodology emphasizes flexibility and customer satisfaction
through iterative development. Teams work in short cycles (sprints) and adjust to
changes quickly, allowing for continuous improvement and delivery.
Question 4:
What is the primary purpose of a risk management plan?
A) To ensure project compliance with regulations
B) To define the project scope
C) To identify, assess, and mitigate potential project risks
D) To outline communication strategies
Correct Option: C) To identify, assess, and mitigate potential project risks
Rationale: A risk management plan systematically identifies potential risks, assesses
their impact and likelihood, and outlines strategies to mitigate or respond to those risks.
It is crucial for minimizing negative outcomes during the project lifecycle.
Question 5:
Which technique is often used for estimating project duration in the context of project
scheduling?
A) PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)
B) SWOT Analysis
C) Feasibility Study
D) Waterfall Model
Correct Option: A) PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)
Rationale: PERT is a statistical tool used in project management to analyze the tasks
involved in completing a project, particularly when the duration of activities is
uncertain. It helps in estimating the shortest, most likely, and longest completion times,
facilitating accurate project scheduling.
Question 6:
Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Gantt charts in project
management?
A) Improved risk management
B) Visual representation of project timeline
C) Increased team collaboration
D) Detailed resource allocation
Correct Option: B) Visual representation of project timeline
,Rationale: Gantt charts provide a clear visual representation of the project timeline,
showing the duration of tasks and their dependencies. This helps project managers
track progress and communicate schedules to stakeholders effectively.
Question 7:
What is the main objective of the stakeholder analysis?
A) To create the project schedule
B) To identify and assess stakeholder influence and interest
C) To document project risks
D) To define project deliverables
Correct Option: B) To identify and assess stakeholder influence and interest
Rationale: Stakeholder analysis is conducted to identify key stakeholders, understand
their interests, influence, and expectations, and develop strategies to engage them
effectively throughout the project.
Question 8:
What does the triple constraint of project management refer to?
A) Scope, Quality, and Cost
B) Time, Cost, and Scope
C) Quality, Flexibility, and Budget
D) Resources, Time, and Quality
Correct Option: B) Time, Cost, and Scope
Rationale: The triple constraint refers to the three primary factors that constrain a
project: time, cost, and scope. Changes to one constraint will likely affect the others,
and effective management is necessary to balance them.
Question 9:
In the context of project management, what does “scope creep” refer to?
A) Delays in project timeline
B) Uncontrolled changes to project scope
C) A decrease in project quality
D) Identifying new stakeholders
Correct Option: B) Uncontrolled changes to project scope
, Rationale: Scope creep occurs when additional features or requirements are added to
a project without proper review or approval, which can lead to overruns in time and
budget, as well as quality issues.
Question 10:
Which of the following is NOT a component of a project management plan?
A) Scope baselines
B) Team performance reviews
C) Cost baseline
D) Schedule baseline
Correct Option: B) Team performance reviews
Rationale: A project management plan includes various baselines (scope, cost, and
schedule) to guide the project's execution. Team performance reviews, while important
for managing personnel, are not a formal component of the project management plan.
Question 11:
What does the term “milestone” in project management typically signify?
A) A completed project deliverable
B) A significant point or event in the project timeline
C) A risk event
D) A budget approval
Correct Option: B) A significant point or event in the project timeline
Rationale: Milestones are key events that mark important stages or achievements in a
project. They help track progress and serve as checkpoints for assessing ongoing
project performance.
Question 12:
Which Agile framework emphasizes the use of sprints for development?
A) Scrum
B) Kanban
C) Extreme Programming
D) Waterfall
Correct Option: A) Scrum
