GENERAL AND ORAL PATHOLOGY FOR
DENTAL HYGIENE PRACTICE
AUTHOR(S)MYERS, SANDRA; CURRAN,
ALICE
TEST BANK
Q1
Reference
Ch. 1 — Patient Assessment and History
Question Stem
A 52-year-old patient reports a 3-week painless white patch on
the lateral tongue that appeared after starting a new
medication. Which historical detail most strongly suggests a
reactive/medication-related lesion rather than a
dysplastic/malignant process?
Options
A. The lesion is fixed to underlying muscle.
B. The lesion appeared within days of starting the medication.
C. The patient has a 40 pack-year smoking history.
D. The lesion shows induration on palpation.
,Correct Answer
B
Rationales
• Correct (B): A temporal relationship — lesion onset within
days of a new medication — supports a reactive or
medication-related process rather than primary dysplasia
or malignancy, which usually develop more insidiously.
• Incorrect (A): Fixation to underlying structures suggests
invasive behavior typical of malignancy, not a reactive
medication lesion.
• Incorrect (C): A heavy smoking history raises baseline risk
for dysplasia or cancer but does not distinguish a
medication-related lesion.
• Incorrect (D): Induration indicates possible invasive disease
or fibrosis rather than an acute reactive medication
change.
Teaching Point
Acute temporal relationships in history often point to reactive
or drug-related lesions.
Citation
Myers, S., & Curran, A. (2023). General and Oral Pathology for
Dental Hygiene Practice (3rd Ed.). Ch. 1.
Q2
,Reference
Ch. 1 — Signs and Symptoms
Question Stem
During an exam you note unilateral facial swelling and
paresthesia of the lower lip. Which interpretation best
prioritizes your differential diagnosis?
Options
A. Likely benign mucosal variant — reassure and observe.
B. Suggests neurovascular involvement — prioritize imaging and
biopsy referral.
C. Typical of aphthous stomatitis — manage with topical
steroids.
D. Consistent with candidiasis — treat with antifungal therapy.
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
• Correct (B): Unilateral swelling with sensory change
(paresthesia) implies possible neural or invasive pathology
(e.g., malignancy, osteomyelitis, or expansive lesion),
warranting prompt imaging and specialist referral.
• Incorrect (A): Benign mucosal variants rarely cause
paresthesia or unilateral swelling. Observation alone is
insufficient.
, • Incorrect (C): Aphthous ulcers cause localized pain on
mucosa but do not produce facial swelling or lip
paresthesia.
• Incorrect (D): Candidiasis generally causes mucosal
changes (white plaques) and not facial swelling with nerve
symptoms.
Teaching Point
Paresthesia with swelling suggests deeper, potentially invasive
pathology — act promptly.
Citation
Myers, S., & Curran, A. (2023). General and Oral Pathology for
Dental Hygiene Practice (3rd Ed.). Ch. 1.
Q3
Reference
Ch. 1 — Head, Neck, and Intraoral Neck Examinations
Question Stem
You palpate a firm, non-tender, fixed submandibular mass in a
68-year-old patient. What next clinical action best aligns with
standard assessment steps?
Options
A. Document as reactive lymphadenopathy and re-evaluate in 6
months.
B. Order panoramic radiograph only; manage conservatively.
DENTAL HYGIENE PRACTICE
AUTHOR(S)MYERS, SANDRA; CURRAN,
ALICE
TEST BANK
Q1
Reference
Ch. 1 — Patient Assessment and History
Question Stem
A 52-year-old patient reports a 3-week painless white patch on
the lateral tongue that appeared after starting a new
medication. Which historical detail most strongly suggests a
reactive/medication-related lesion rather than a
dysplastic/malignant process?
Options
A. The lesion is fixed to underlying muscle.
B. The lesion appeared within days of starting the medication.
C. The patient has a 40 pack-year smoking history.
D. The lesion shows induration on palpation.
,Correct Answer
B
Rationales
• Correct (B): A temporal relationship — lesion onset within
days of a new medication — supports a reactive or
medication-related process rather than primary dysplasia
or malignancy, which usually develop more insidiously.
• Incorrect (A): Fixation to underlying structures suggests
invasive behavior typical of malignancy, not a reactive
medication lesion.
• Incorrect (C): A heavy smoking history raises baseline risk
for dysplasia or cancer but does not distinguish a
medication-related lesion.
• Incorrect (D): Induration indicates possible invasive disease
or fibrosis rather than an acute reactive medication
change.
Teaching Point
Acute temporal relationships in history often point to reactive
or drug-related lesions.
Citation
Myers, S., & Curran, A. (2023). General and Oral Pathology for
Dental Hygiene Practice (3rd Ed.). Ch. 1.
Q2
,Reference
Ch. 1 — Signs and Symptoms
Question Stem
During an exam you note unilateral facial swelling and
paresthesia of the lower lip. Which interpretation best
prioritizes your differential diagnosis?
Options
A. Likely benign mucosal variant — reassure and observe.
B. Suggests neurovascular involvement — prioritize imaging and
biopsy referral.
C. Typical of aphthous stomatitis — manage with topical
steroids.
D. Consistent with candidiasis — treat with antifungal therapy.
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
• Correct (B): Unilateral swelling with sensory change
(paresthesia) implies possible neural or invasive pathology
(e.g., malignancy, osteomyelitis, or expansive lesion),
warranting prompt imaging and specialist referral.
• Incorrect (A): Benign mucosal variants rarely cause
paresthesia or unilateral swelling. Observation alone is
insufficient.
, • Incorrect (C): Aphthous ulcers cause localized pain on
mucosa but do not produce facial swelling or lip
paresthesia.
• Incorrect (D): Candidiasis generally causes mucosal
changes (white plaques) and not facial swelling with nerve
symptoms.
Teaching Point
Paresthesia with swelling suggests deeper, potentially invasive
pathology — act promptly.
Citation
Myers, S., & Curran, A. (2023). General and Oral Pathology for
Dental Hygiene Practice (3rd Ed.). Ch. 1.
Q3
Reference
Ch. 1 — Head, Neck, and Intraoral Neck Examinations
Question Stem
You palpate a firm, non-tender, fixed submandibular mass in a
68-year-old patient. What next clinical action best aligns with
standard assessment steps?
Options
A. Document as reactive lymphadenopathy and re-evaluate in 6
months.
B. Order panoramic radiograph only; manage conservatively.
