VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS || WALDEN UNIVERSITY ||
UPDATED VERSION
Description: Comprehensive NRNP 6635 Final Exam material
with verified questions and accurate answers for 2025. Covers
psychotherapy, mental health assessment,
psychopharmacology, and advanced nursing practice. Designed
for Walden University NP students.
Keywords: NRNP 6635 final exam Walden University
psychotherapy mental health psychopharmacology nurse
practitioner clinical psychology advanced nursing exam guide
Assessment & Diagnosis
1. What is the primary purpose of a mental status examination (MSE)?
A) To provide a definitive DSM-5-TR diagnosis
B) To document a patient's objective and subjective psychological functioning at a specific point
in time
C) To replace the need for a comprehensive psychiatric interview
D) To assess only the cognitive functions of a patient
2. A patient presents with flat affect, poverty of speech, and avolition. These are considered:
A) Positive symptoms of schizophrenia
B) Mood-congruent features of depression
C) Negative symptoms of schizophrenia
D) Symptoms of mania
,3. Which of the following is a key diagnostic criterion for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
A) Presence of panic attacks
B) Excessive anxiety and worry occurring more days than not for at least 6 months
C) Anxiety triggered only by social situations
D) The anxiety is directly due to a substance use disorder
4. In Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), which symptom is considered a "neurovegetative"
sign?
A) Feelings of worthlessness
B) Psychomotor agitation or retardation
C) Diminished ability to think
D) Recurrent thoughts of death
5. A patient with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) would most likely exhibit:
A) A pervasive pattern of grandiosity and lack of empathy
B) A pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and
marked impulsivity
C) A pervasive pattern of social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy
D) A pervasive pattern of preoccupation with order and perfectionism
6. The "A" in the "A-B-C" model of Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) stands for:
A) Action
B) Antecedent
C) Activating event
D) Assessment
7. Which assessment tool is specifically designed to screen for cognitive impairment and
dementia?
A) PHQ-9
B) GAD-7
C) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
D) CAGE Questionnaire
8. A differential diagnosis for a first-episode psychosis should always include:
A) Bipolar I Disorder
B) Substance/Medication-Induced Psychotic Disorder
C) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
D) All of the above
, 9. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of Persistent
Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)?
A) 2 weeks
B) 6 months
C) 1 year
D) 2 years
10. Flight of ideas is a thought process most commonly associated with:
A) Major Depressive Episode
B) Manic Episode
C) Schizophrenia
D) PTSD
Psychopharmacology: Antidepressants
11. Which class of antidepressants is considered a first-line treatment for MDD due to its
favorable side effect profile?
A) Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)
B) Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)
C) Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
D) Atypical Antipsychotics
12. A common, often transient side effect of SSRIs that patients should be counseled about is:
A) Weight gain
B) Sexual dysfunction
C) Hypertensive crisis
D) Tardive dyskinesia
13. Which antidepressant requires strict dietary adherence to avoid a tyramine-induced
hypertensive crisis?
A) Sertraline (Zoloft)
B) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
C) Phenelzine (Nardil)
D) Venlafaxine (Effexor)
14. The antidepressant Venlafaxine (Effexor XR) is classified as a(n):
A) SSRI
B) SNRI (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor)