P
PRRE
EMM II U
UMM SS TT U
UDDY
Y M
MAA TT E
ERR II A
A LL SS STUDY COLLECTION: 2025
PATHO 370 - IN CLASS QUIZ 2 (CH. 10, 11, 13, 14, 15)
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WHAT'S INSIDE:
Latest 2025/2026 Questions
Verified Correct Answers Highlighted for Easy Learning
Detailed Explanations & Rationales for Better Understanding
Proven to Boost Grades and Exam Confidence
Covers All Essential Topics and Core Concepts
Perfect for Quick Revision and Last-Minute Review
Question 1
A 58-year-old male construction worker with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents to the emergency department
with a persistent cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis over the past two months. Imaging reveals a 4 cm centrally
located lung mass with mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Histopathology shows sheets of pleomorphic cells with
keratin pearls and intercellular bridges. The pathology report recommends a treatment plan. Considering the TNM
staging system, the patient's performance status, and the molecular profile indicating EGFR wild-type, which
therapeutic approach should be prioritized to maximize survival while minimizing toxicity?
A. Surgical lobectomy followed by adjuvant platinum-based chemotherapy
B. Definitive concurrent chemoradiation without surgery
C. Targeted therapy with an EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor
D. Immunotherapy with pembrolizumab monotherapy
Correct Answer
Surgical lobectomy followed by adjuvant platinum-based chemotherapy
Rationale:
For stage III non‑small cell lung cancer with resectable disease and good performance status, surgery plus adjuvant platinum
chemotherapy offers the best chance of cure, while EGFR‑targeted therapy is ineffective without mutation.
,Question 2
A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and chronic kidney disease stage 3 is
admitted for acute decompensated heart failure. Laboratory studies reveal a serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL, BUN 45
mg/dL, and an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 30 mL/min/1.73 m2. She is currently receiving furosemide 80
mg IV twice daily, spironolactone 25 mg daily, and warfarin. Which medication adjustment is most appropriate to
avoid worsening renal function while managing fluid overload?
A. Increase furosemide dose to 160 mg IV twice daily
B. Add intravenous bumetanide as a loop diuretic adjunct
C. Discontinue spironolactone and initiate low‑dose thiazide diuretic
D. Switch to continuous infusion of furosemide at a lower dose
Correct Answer
Discontinue spironolactone and initiate low‑dose thiazide diuretic
Rationale:
Spironolactone can precipitate hyperkalemia in renal insufficiency; a low‑dose thiazide can augment diuresis without further
compromising renal perfusion, balancing fluid removal and kidney safety.
Question 3
A 45-year-old male presents with a three‑week history of fever, night sweats, and painless cervical
lymphadenopathy. Excisional biopsy of a node shows Reed‑Sternberg cells with CD15 and CD30 positivity. Staging
workup reveals involvement of the mediastinum and spleen but no bone marrow disease. According to the
Ann Arbor classification, what is the appropriate stage and recommended initial therapy for this patient?
A. Stage IIA; combined ABVD chemotherapy and involved‑field radiotherapy
B. Stage IIB; ABVD chemotherapy alone
C. Stage IIIA; BEACOPP regimen with stem‑cell support
D. Stage IV; palliative care only
Correct Answer
Stage IIB; ABVD chemotherapy alone
Rationale:
The disease is stage II (multiple nodal regions on the same side of the diaphragm) with systemic symptoms, classified as IIB; ABVD
is the standard first‑line regimen for this stage without radiotherapy.
,Question 4
A 30-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents with new onset of proteinuria (2.5 g/24 h),
hematuria, and decreased complement levels. Renal biopsy demonstrates diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
(Class IV). Which immunosuppressive regimen aligns with current ACR guidelines to achieve remission while
minimizing long‑term toxicity?
A. High‑dose intravenous methylprednisolone followed by oral prednisone and cyclophosphamide pulses
B. Mycophenolate mofetil combined with low‑dose prednisone
C. Rituximab monotherapy with tapering steroids
D. Azathioprine with hydroxychloroquine and maintenance steroids
Correct Answer
Mycophenolate mofetil combined with low‑dose prednisone
Rationale:
Guidelines favor mycophenolate mofetil plus low‑dose steroids for induction of remission in Class IV lupus nephritis, offering
comparable efficacy to cyclophosphamide with fewer adverse effects.
Question 5
A 68-year-old man undergoing evaluation for liver transplantation is found to have a 2.5 cm hepatic lesion on MRI
with arterial phase hyperenhancement and washout in the portal venous phase. Biopsy reveals well‑differentiated
hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). According to the Milan criteria, is this patient a suitable candidate for orthotopic
liver transplantation, and what additional factor must be considered?
A. Yes; tumor must be ≤3 cm and no macrovascular invasion
B. No; lesion exceeds size limit of 2 cm
C. Yes; provided the patient has a Model for End‑Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score >15
D. No; HCC beyond Milan criteria requires down‑staging before transplant
Correct Answer
Yes; tumor must be ≤3 cm and no macrovascular invasion
Rationale:
Milan criteria allow a single tumor ≤5 cm or up to three tumors each ≤3 cm without vascular invasion; a 2.5 cm lesion meets criteria,
making transplantation appropriate if liver function warrants.
, Question 6
A 22‑year‑old college student presents with a two‑day history of severe sore throat, fever, and a maculopapular rash
that began on the trunk and spread to the extremities. Rapid antigen detection test for group A Streptococcus is
negative, but a throat culture later grows Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Which public health measure is most critical
to prevent secondary transmission in the dormitory setting?
A. Immediate administration of diphtheria antitoxin and isolation of the patient
B. Prophylactic erythromycin for all close contacts
C. Vaccination of contacts with Td booster within 48 hours
D. Environmental decontamination with bleach solution
Correct Answer
Immediate administration of diphtheria antitoxin and isolation of the patient
Rationale:
Diphtheria antitoxin neutralizes toxin and isolation stops spread; prophylactic antibiotics and vaccination are secondary but antitoxin is
essential for immediate disease control.
Question 7
A 55‑year‑old female with a family history of breast cancer undergoes genetic testing, which reveals a pathogenic
BRCA2 mutation. She is currently asymptomatic and has no detectable lesions on imaging. According to NCCN
guidelines, which surveillance strategy should be implemented to optimize early detection while balancing radiation
exposure?
A. Annual mammography starting at age 40
B. Annual breast MRI beginning at age 30, alternating with mammography every six months
C. Prophylactic bilateral mastectomy within the next year
D. Clinical breast exam every three years with ultrasound screening
Correct Answer
Annual breast MRI beginning at age 30, alternating with mammography every six
months
Rationale:
BRCA2 carriers benefit from MRI surveillance starting at 30 due to higher sensitivity, alternating with mammography to reduce
cumulative radiation while maintaining detection rates.
PRRE
EMM II U
UMM SS TT U
UDDY
Y M
MAA TT E
ERR II A
A LL SS STUDY COLLECTION: 2025
PATHO 370 - IN CLASS QUIZ 2 (CH. 10, 11, 13, 14, 15)
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WHAT'S INSIDE:
Latest 2025/2026 Questions
Verified Correct Answers Highlighted for Easy Learning
Detailed Explanations & Rationales for Better Understanding
Proven to Boost Grades and Exam Confidence
Covers All Essential Topics and Core Concepts
Perfect for Quick Revision and Last-Minute Review
Question 1
A 58-year-old male construction worker with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents to the emergency department
with a persistent cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis over the past two months. Imaging reveals a 4 cm centrally
located lung mass with mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Histopathology shows sheets of pleomorphic cells with
keratin pearls and intercellular bridges. The pathology report recommends a treatment plan. Considering the TNM
staging system, the patient's performance status, and the molecular profile indicating EGFR wild-type, which
therapeutic approach should be prioritized to maximize survival while minimizing toxicity?
A. Surgical lobectomy followed by adjuvant platinum-based chemotherapy
B. Definitive concurrent chemoradiation without surgery
C. Targeted therapy with an EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor
D. Immunotherapy with pembrolizumab monotherapy
Correct Answer
Surgical lobectomy followed by adjuvant platinum-based chemotherapy
Rationale:
For stage III non‑small cell lung cancer with resectable disease and good performance status, surgery plus adjuvant platinum
chemotherapy offers the best chance of cure, while EGFR‑targeted therapy is ineffective without mutation.
,Question 2
A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and chronic kidney disease stage 3 is
admitted for acute decompensated heart failure. Laboratory studies reveal a serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL, BUN 45
mg/dL, and an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 30 mL/min/1.73 m2. She is currently receiving furosemide 80
mg IV twice daily, spironolactone 25 mg daily, and warfarin. Which medication adjustment is most appropriate to
avoid worsening renal function while managing fluid overload?
A. Increase furosemide dose to 160 mg IV twice daily
B. Add intravenous bumetanide as a loop diuretic adjunct
C. Discontinue spironolactone and initiate low‑dose thiazide diuretic
D. Switch to continuous infusion of furosemide at a lower dose
Correct Answer
Discontinue spironolactone and initiate low‑dose thiazide diuretic
Rationale:
Spironolactone can precipitate hyperkalemia in renal insufficiency; a low‑dose thiazide can augment diuresis without further
compromising renal perfusion, balancing fluid removal and kidney safety.
Question 3
A 45-year-old male presents with a three‑week history of fever, night sweats, and painless cervical
lymphadenopathy. Excisional biopsy of a node shows Reed‑Sternberg cells with CD15 and CD30 positivity. Staging
workup reveals involvement of the mediastinum and spleen but no bone marrow disease. According to the
Ann Arbor classification, what is the appropriate stage and recommended initial therapy for this patient?
A. Stage IIA; combined ABVD chemotherapy and involved‑field radiotherapy
B. Stage IIB; ABVD chemotherapy alone
C. Stage IIIA; BEACOPP regimen with stem‑cell support
D. Stage IV; palliative care only
Correct Answer
Stage IIB; ABVD chemotherapy alone
Rationale:
The disease is stage II (multiple nodal regions on the same side of the diaphragm) with systemic symptoms, classified as IIB; ABVD
is the standard first‑line regimen for this stage without radiotherapy.
,Question 4
A 30-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents with new onset of proteinuria (2.5 g/24 h),
hematuria, and decreased complement levels. Renal biopsy demonstrates diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
(Class IV). Which immunosuppressive regimen aligns with current ACR guidelines to achieve remission while
minimizing long‑term toxicity?
A. High‑dose intravenous methylprednisolone followed by oral prednisone and cyclophosphamide pulses
B. Mycophenolate mofetil combined with low‑dose prednisone
C. Rituximab monotherapy with tapering steroids
D. Azathioprine with hydroxychloroquine and maintenance steroids
Correct Answer
Mycophenolate mofetil combined with low‑dose prednisone
Rationale:
Guidelines favor mycophenolate mofetil plus low‑dose steroids for induction of remission in Class IV lupus nephritis, offering
comparable efficacy to cyclophosphamide with fewer adverse effects.
Question 5
A 68-year-old man undergoing evaluation for liver transplantation is found to have a 2.5 cm hepatic lesion on MRI
with arterial phase hyperenhancement and washout in the portal venous phase. Biopsy reveals well‑differentiated
hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). According to the Milan criteria, is this patient a suitable candidate for orthotopic
liver transplantation, and what additional factor must be considered?
A. Yes; tumor must be ≤3 cm and no macrovascular invasion
B. No; lesion exceeds size limit of 2 cm
C. Yes; provided the patient has a Model for End‑Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score >15
D. No; HCC beyond Milan criteria requires down‑staging before transplant
Correct Answer
Yes; tumor must be ≤3 cm and no macrovascular invasion
Rationale:
Milan criteria allow a single tumor ≤5 cm or up to three tumors each ≤3 cm without vascular invasion; a 2.5 cm lesion meets criteria,
making transplantation appropriate if liver function warrants.
, Question 6
A 22‑year‑old college student presents with a two‑day history of severe sore throat, fever, and a maculopapular rash
that began on the trunk and spread to the extremities. Rapid antigen detection test for group A Streptococcus is
negative, but a throat culture later grows Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Which public health measure is most critical
to prevent secondary transmission in the dormitory setting?
A. Immediate administration of diphtheria antitoxin and isolation of the patient
B. Prophylactic erythromycin for all close contacts
C. Vaccination of contacts with Td booster within 48 hours
D. Environmental decontamination with bleach solution
Correct Answer
Immediate administration of diphtheria antitoxin and isolation of the patient
Rationale:
Diphtheria antitoxin neutralizes toxin and isolation stops spread; prophylactic antibiotics and vaccination are secondary but antitoxin is
essential for immediate disease control.
Question 7
A 55‑year‑old female with a family history of breast cancer undergoes genetic testing, which reveals a pathogenic
BRCA2 mutation. She is currently asymptomatic and has no detectable lesions on imaging. According to NCCN
guidelines, which surveillance strategy should be implemented to optimize early detection while balancing radiation
exposure?
A. Annual mammography starting at age 40
B. Annual breast MRI beginning at age 30, alternating with mammography every six months
C. Prophylactic bilateral mastectomy within the next year
D. Clinical breast exam every three years with ultrasound screening
Correct Answer
Annual breast MRI beginning at age 30, alternating with mammography every six
months
Rationale:
BRCA2 carriers benefit from MRI surveillance starting at 30 due to higher sensitivity, alternating with mammography to reduce
cumulative radiation while maintaining detection rates.
