NR667 APEA REVIEW: MSN FNP PROGRAM CAPSTONE
PRACTICUM & INTENSIVE (2025/2026)
Verified Content | 180 Questions & Answers | Chamberlain University | FNP Certification
Readiness
Overview
This 2025/2026 validated resource contains comprehensive NR667 APEA review
materials with 180 verified questions and answers, specifically designed for Chamberlain
University MSN FNP students. Essential for capstone practicum preparation, APEA predictor
exam success, and FNP board certification readiness.
Key Features
✓ 180-Question Comprehensive Review matching NR667 course objectives
✓ Capstone Practicum Application with clinical scenario integration
✓ APEA Predictor Exam Alignment with content domain coverage
✓ Updated 2025/2026 Chamberlain University curriculum standards
✓ Clinical Intensive Preparation for final practicum requirements
Content Domains
● Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnosis (35 Questions)
● Pharmacology & Therapeutic Management (35 Questions)
● Chronic Disease Management Across Lifespan (30 Questions)
● Acute & Emergency Care (25 Questions)
● Health Promotion & Disease Prevention (25 Questions)
● Professional Role & Practice Management (20 Questions)
● Complex Case Synthesis (10 Questions)
Answer Format
Correct answers in bold green with:
● Clinical decision-making rationales
● Evidence-based practice citations
● Diagnostic reasoning pathways
● Treatment protocol applications
🔹
Critical Updates 2025/2026
🔹
NEW - Chamberlain University 2026 curriculum updates
🔹
UPDATED - APEA predictor exam content changes
🔹
REVISED - Capstone portfolio requirements
MODIFIED - Clinical hour documentation standards
,Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnosis (Questions 1–35)
1. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold
intolerance. On exam, you note delayed ankle reflex relaxation. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Addison’s disease
b) Hypothyroidism
Rationale: Delayed deep tendon reflex relaxation is pathognomonic for hypothyroidism
(myxedema); TSH elevated, free T4 low (ATA 2025).
2. During a cardiac exam, you palpate a laterally displaced PMI. What does
this indicate?
a) Right ventricular hypertrophy
b) Left ventricular enlargement
c) Pericardial effusion
d) Normal variant
b) Left ventricular enlargement
Rationale: PMI >10 cm from mid-sternal line or beyond midclavicular line suggests LV dilation
(ACC/AHA 2025).
3. A patient has a positive Murphy’s sign. What organ is most likely
involved?
a) Spleen
b) Gallbladder
c) Appendix
d) Pancreas
b) Gallbladder
Rationale: Inspiratory arrest on RUQ palpation = acute cholecystitis (Tokyo Guidelines 2025).
4. What is the most sensitive physical finding for detecting ascites?
a) Bulging flanks
b) Shifting dullness
c) Fluid wave
d) Tympany over abdomen
b) Shifting dullness
Rationale: Sensitivity 80–90%; fluid wave less sensitive but more specific (AASLD 2025).
5. A 32-year-old male has a diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal
border. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Mitral stenosis
b) Aortic regurgitation
c) Pulmonic stenosis
,d) Tricuspid regurgitation
b) Aortic regurgitation
Rationale: High-pitched blowing murmur; wide pulse pressure, bounding pulses (ACC/AHA
2025).
6. What is the correct order for abdominal assessment?
a) Palpation → Auscultation → Percussion → Inspection
b) Inspection → Auscultation → Percussion → Palpation
c) Auscultation → Inspection → Palpation → Percussion
d) Percussion → Palpation → Inspection → Auscultation
b) Inspection → Auscultation → Percussion → Palpation
Rationale: Auscultation before palpation/percussion to avoid altering bowel sounds.
7. A patient has a positive Rovsing’s sign. What condition is suspected?
a) Cholecystitis
b) Appendicitis
c) Diverticulitis
d) Pancreatitis
b) Appendicitis
Rationale: Pain in RLQ when LLQ is palpated; peritonitis from appendiceal inflammation.
8. What is the Romberg test used to assess?
a) Cerebellar function
b) Proprioception and vestibular function
c) Motor strength
d) Cranial nerve XII
b) Proprioception and vestibular function
Rationale: Loss of balance with eyes closed = positive (sensory ataxia).
9. A patient has gynecomastia and spider angiomata. What lab should be
ordered first?
a) TSH
b) Liver function tests
c) Testosterone
d) Prolactin
b) Liver function tests
Rationale: Signs of chronic liver disease (estrogen excess from impaired metabolism).
10. What is the Weber test positive lateralization indicating?
a) Sensorineural hearing loss
b) Conductive hearing loss in the lateralized ear
c) Normal hearing
d) Meniere’s disease
b) Conductive hearing loss in the lateralized ear
Rationale: Sound lateralizes to affected ear in conductive loss; away in sensorineural.
, 11. A patient has a positive Phalen’s test within 30 seconds. What is
suspected?
a) De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
c) Trigger finger
d) Dupuytren’s contracture
b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Rationale: Paresthesia in median nerve distribution with wrist flexion.
12. What is the best position to assess for jugular venous distention?
a) Supine
b) 30–45° head elevation
c) Standing
d) Left lateral decubitus
b) 30–45° head elevation
Rationale: Optimizes visualization of internal jugular pulsations.
13. A patient has a loud P2 heart sound. What is most likely?
a) Pulmonary hypertension
b) Aortic stenosis
c) Mitral regurgitation
d) Atrial septal defect
a) Pulmonary hypertension
Rationale: Accentuated P2 from increased pulmonary pressure.
14. What is the Allen’s test used to evaluate?
a) Radial nerve function
b) Patency of radial and ulnar arteries
c) Median nerve compression
d) Brachial pulse
b) Patency of radial and ulnar arteries
Rationale: Ensures collateral flow before arterial puncture.
15. A patient has a positive Tinel’s sign at the wrist. What is indicated?
a) Ulnar neuropathy
b) Median nerve irritation (carpal tunnel)
c) Radial nerve palsy
d) Cubital tunnel syndrome
b) Median nerve irritation (carpal tunnel)
Rationale: Tingling with percussion over median nerve.
16. What is the most specific sign of peritonitis?
a) Rebound tenderness
b) Guarding
c) Rigidity
d) Distention
PRACTICUM & INTENSIVE (2025/2026)
Verified Content | 180 Questions & Answers | Chamberlain University | FNP Certification
Readiness
Overview
This 2025/2026 validated resource contains comprehensive NR667 APEA review
materials with 180 verified questions and answers, specifically designed for Chamberlain
University MSN FNP students. Essential for capstone practicum preparation, APEA predictor
exam success, and FNP board certification readiness.
Key Features
✓ 180-Question Comprehensive Review matching NR667 course objectives
✓ Capstone Practicum Application with clinical scenario integration
✓ APEA Predictor Exam Alignment with content domain coverage
✓ Updated 2025/2026 Chamberlain University curriculum standards
✓ Clinical Intensive Preparation for final practicum requirements
Content Domains
● Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnosis (35 Questions)
● Pharmacology & Therapeutic Management (35 Questions)
● Chronic Disease Management Across Lifespan (30 Questions)
● Acute & Emergency Care (25 Questions)
● Health Promotion & Disease Prevention (25 Questions)
● Professional Role & Practice Management (20 Questions)
● Complex Case Synthesis (10 Questions)
Answer Format
Correct answers in bold green with:
● Clinical decision-making rationales
● Evidence-based practice citations
● Diagnostic reasoning pathways
● Treatment protocol applications
🔹
Critical Updates 2025/2026
🔹
NEW - Chamberlain University 2026 curriculum updates
🔹
UPDATED - APEA predictor exam content changes
🔹
REVISED - Capstone portfolio requirements
MODIFIED - Clinical hour documentation standards
,Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnosis (Questions 1–35)
1. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold
intolerance. On exam, you note delayed ankle reflex relaxation. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Addison’s disease
b) Hypothyroidism
Rationale: Delayed deep tendon reflex relaxation is pathognomonic for hypothyroidism
(myxedema); TSH elevated, free T4 low (ATA 2025).
2. During a cardiac exam, you palpate a laterally displaced PMI. What does
this indicate?
a) Right ventricular hypertrophy
b) Left ventricular enlargement
c) Pericardial effusion
d) Normal variant
b) Left ventricular enlargement
Rationale: PMI >10 cm from mid-sternal line or beyond midclavicular line suggests LV dilation
(ACC/AHA 2025).
3. A patient has a positive Murphy’s sign. What organ is most likely
involved?
a) Spleen
b) Gallbladder
c) Appendix
d) Pancreas
b) Gallbladder
Rationale: Inspiratory arrest on RUQ palpation = acute cholecystitis (Tokyo Guidelines 2025).
4. What is the most sensitive physical finding for detecting ascites?
a) Bulging flanks
b) Shifting dullness
c) Fluid wave
d) Tympany over abdomen
b) Shifting dullness
Rationale: Sensitivity 80–90%; fluid wave less sensitive but more specific (AASLD 2025).
5. A 32-year-old male has a diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal
border. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Mitral stenosis
b) Aortic regurgitation
c) Pulmonic stenosis
,d) Tricuspid regurgitation
b) Aortic regurgitation
Rationale: High-pitched blowing murmur; wide pulse pressure, bounding pulses (ACC/AHA
2025).
6. What is the correct order for abdominal assessment?
a) Palpation → Auscultation → Percussion → Inspection
b) Inspection → Auscultation → Percussion → Palpation
c) Auscultation → Inspection → Palpation → Percussion
d) Percussion → Palpation → Inspection → Auscultation
b) Inspection → Auscultation → Percussion → Palpation
Rationale: Auscultation before palpation/percussion to avoid altering bowel sounds.
7. A patient has a positive Rovsing’s sign. What condition is suspected?
a) Cholecystitis
b) Appendicitis
c) Diverticulitis
d) Pancreatitis
b) Appendicitis
Rationale: Pain in RLQ when LLQ is palpated; peritonitis from appendiceal inflammation.
8. What is the Romberg test used to assess?
a) Cerebellar function
b) Proprioception and vestibular function
c) Motor strength
d) Cranial nerve XII
b) Proprioception and vestibular function
Rationale: Loss of balance with eyes closed = positive (sensory ataxia).
9. A patient has gynecomastia and spider angiomata. What lab should be
ordered first?
a) TSH
b) Liver function tests
c) Testosterone
d) Prolactin
b) Liver function tests
Rationale: Signs of chronic liver disease (estrogen excess from impaired metabolism).
10. What is the Weber test positive lateralization indicating?
a) Sensorineural hearing loss
b) Conductive hearing loss in the lateralized ear
c) Normal hearing
d) Meniere’s disease
b) Conductive hearing loss in the lateralized ear
Rationale: Sound lateralizes to affected ear in conductive loss; away in sensorineural.
, 11. A patient has a positive Phalen’s test within 30 seconds. What is
suspected?
a) De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
c) Trigger finger
d) Dupuytren’s contracture
b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Rationale: Paresthesia in median nerve distribution with wrist flexion.
12. What is the best position to assess for jugular venous distention?
a) Supine
b) 30–45° head elevation
c) Standing
d) Left lateral decubitus
b) 30–45° head elevation
Rationale: Optimizes visualization of internal jugular pulsations.
13. A patient has a loud P2 heart sound. What is most likely?
a) Pulmonary hypertension
b) Aortic stenosis
c) Mitral regurgitation
d) Atrial septal defect
a) Pulmonary hypertension
Rationale: Accentuated P2 from increased pulmonary pressure.
14. What is the Allen’s test used to evaluate?
a) Radial nerve function
b) Patency of radial and ulnar arteries
c) Median nerve compression
d) Brachial pulse
b) Patency of radial and ulnar arteries
Rationale: Ensures collateral flow before arterial puncture.
15. A patient has a positive Tinel’s sign at the wrist. What is indicated?
a) Ulnar neuropathy
b) Median nerve irritation (carpal tunnel)
c) Radial nerve palsy
d) Cubital tunnel syndrome
b) Median nerve irritation (carpal tunnel)
Rationale: Tingling with percussion over median nerve.
16. What is the most specific sign of peritonitis?
a) Rebound tenderness
b) Guarding
c) Rigidity
d) Distention
