lOMoARcPSD|26582732
ATI PN Fundamentals and PN ATI Pharmacology Proctored
Exam with NGN 70 Questions for Fundamentals and 60 for
Pharmacology and Answers
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and is prescribed epoetin alfa.
Which finding should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?
A. Decreased serum potassium levels.
B. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
C. Lowered blood pressure readings.
D. Reduced serum creatinine levels.
The correct answer is B. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form
of erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. It is commonly
prescribed for clients with chronic kidney disease who develop anemia due to decreased natural
erythropoietin production. Effectiveness is evaluated by improvement in hemoglobin and
hematocrit levels, which indicate increased red blood cell production. Option A is incorrect
because epoetin alfa does not directly affect potassium. Option C is incorrect since blood pressure
may actually increase as a side effect, not decrease. Option D is also incorrect because creatinine
levels reflect kidney function, and epoetin alfa does not improve renal
Clearance. Therefore, the therapeutic goal is increased red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and
hematocrit.
Question 2
A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions for a client prescribed furosemide. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A. “I will weigh myself weekly to check for fluid loss.”
B. “I will limit foods high in potassium while on this medication.”
C. “I will rise slowly when getting out of bed to prevent dizziness.”
D. “I will stop taking the medication if I experience increased urination.”
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The correct answer is C. “I will rise slowly when getting out of bed to prevent dizziness.”
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary output to reduce fluid overload, commonly in
clients with heart failure, hypertension, or renal disease. One of its major adverse effects is
orthostatic hypotension due to rapid fluid loss, so clients should change positions slowly to avoid
dizziness and fainting. Option A is incorrect because the client should weigh daily, not weekly, to
detect sudden fluid retention or loss. Option B is incorrect because furosemide can cause
potassium loss, so the client should actually increase potassium-rich foods. Option D is wrong
since increased urination is an expected effect, not a reason to discontinue therapy. Correct
teaching emphasizes safety precautions such as slow position changes.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative after abdominal surgery. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately? A. Pain at the incision site
rated 7 out of 10.
B. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all quadrants.
C. Purulent drainage at the surgical site.
D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
The correct answer is C. Purulent drainage at the surgical site. Purulent drainage indicates a
possible wound infection, which is a serious postoperative complication requiring immediate
provider notification and intervention. Pain at the incision site (option A) is expected within the first
24 to 48 hours, although it should be managed. Hypoactive bowel sounds (option B) are common
after abdominal surgery due to anesthesia and manipulation of the intestines, so this finding is not
immediately concerning. A mild postoperative temperature of 37.8°C (option D) is expected as part
of the normal inflammatory response in the first 48 hours. Therefore, purulent drainage is the most
urgent finding, as it suggests infection that may spread if untreated.
Question 4
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has hypertension. Which food choice by
the client indicates an understanding of a low-sodium diet? A. Canned vegetable soup with
crackers.
B. Fresh fruit salad with plain yogurt.
C. Smoked turkey sandwich on white bread.
D. Pickles and processed cheese slices.
The correct answer is B. Fresh fruit salad with plain yogurt. A low-sodium diet is essential in
managing hypertension, as sodium promotes fluid retention and increases blood pressure. Fresh
fruits and plain yogurt are naturally low in sodium and make an excellent choice. Option A is
incorrect because canned soups are often high in sodium. Option C is also high in sodium due to
smoked meats and processed bread. Option D contains pickles and processed cheese, both of
which are heavily salted and inappropriate for a hypertensive client. By selecting fresh,
unprocessed foods like fruit and yogurt, the client demonstrates proper adherence to a lowsodium
diet for effective blood pressure management.
Question 5
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A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual
tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. “You should swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.”
B. “You may take up to three tablets, five minutes apart, for chest pain.”
C. “You can store the tablets in a weekly pill organizer for convenience.”
D. “You should take the tablet before exercising to prevent low blood sugar.”
The correct answer is B. “You may take up to three tablets, five minutes apart, for chest
pain.” Sublingual nitroglycerin works rapidly to relieve angina by dilating coronary arteries and
increasing blood flow to the heart. Clients should be instructed to place the tablet under the
tongue and let it dissolve, not swallow it (option A). They may take one tablet every five
minutes, up to three tablets within 15 minutes, but must call emergency services if pain persists
after the first dose. Option C is incorrect because nitroglycerin must be stored in its original dark
glass container to maintain potency. Option D is unrelated to nitroglycerin use, as it is not used to
prevent hypoglycemia. Correct teaching ensures safe and effective management of angina
symptoms.
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and is prescribed epoetin alfa.
Which finding should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?
A. Decreased serum potassium levels.
B. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
C. Lowered blood pressure readings.
D. Reduced serum creatinine levels.
The correct answer is B. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form
of erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. It is commonly
prescribed for clients with chronic kidney disease who develop anemia due to decreased natural
erythropoietin production. Effectiveness is evaluated by improvement in hemoglobin and
hematocrit levels, which indicate increased red blood cell production. Option A is incorrect
because epoetin alfa does not directly affect potassium. Option C is incorrect since blood pressure
may actually increase as a side effect, not decrease. Option D is also incorrect because creatinine
levels reflect kidney function, and epoetin alfa does not improve renal clearance. Therefore, the
therapeutic goal is increased red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit.
Question 2
A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions for a client prescribed furosemide. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A. “I will weigh myself weekly to check for fluid loss.”
B. “I will limit foods high in potassium while on this medication.”
C. “I will rise slowly when getting out of bed to prevent dizziness.”
D. “I will stop taking the medication if I experience increased urination.”
The correct answer is C. “I will rise slowly when getting out of bed to prevent dizziness.”
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary output to reduce fluid overload, commonly in
clients with heart failure, hypertension, or renal disease. One of its major adverse effects is
Downloaded by NELSON KIIRU ()
, lOMoARcPSD|26582732
orthostatic hypotension due to rapid fluid loss, so clients should change positions slowly to avoid
dizziness and fainting. Option A is incorrect because the client should weigh daily, not weekly, to
detect sudden fluid retention or loss. Option B is incorrect because furosemide can cause
potassium loss, so the client should actually increase potassium-rich foods. Option D is wrong
since increased urination is an expected effect, not a reason to discontinue therapy. Correct
teaching emphasizes safety precautions such as slow position changes.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative after abdominal surgery. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately? A. Pain at the incision site
rated 7 out of 10.
B. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all quadrants.
C. Purulent drainage at the surgical site.
D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
The correct answer is C. Purulent drainage at the surgical site. Purulent drainage indicates a
possible wound infection, which is a serious postoperative complication requiring immediate
provider notification and intervention. Pain at the incision site (option A) is expected within the first
24 to 48 hours, although it should be managed. Hypoactive bowel sounds (option B) are common
after abdominal surgery due to anesthesia and manipulation of the intestines, so this finding is not
immediately concerning. A mild postoperative temperature of 37.8°C (option D) is expected as part
of the normal inflammatory response in the first 48 hours. Therefore, purulent drainage is the most
urgent finding, as it suggests infection that may spread if untreated.
Question 4
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has hypertension. Which food choice by
the client indicates an understanding of a low-sodium diet? A. Canned vegetable soup with
crackers.
B. Fresh fruit salad with plain yogurt.
C. Smoked turkey sandwich on white bread.
D. Pickles and processed cheese slices.
The correct answer is B. Fresh fruit salad with plain yogurt. A low-sodium diet is essential in
managing hypertension, as sodium promotes fluid retention and increases blood pressure. Fresh
fruits and plain yogurt are naturally low in sodium and make an excellent choice. Option A is
incorrect because canned soups are often high in sodium. Option C is also high in sodium due to
smoked meats and processed bread. Option D contains pickles and processed cheese, both of
which are heavily salted and inappropriate for a hypertensive client. By selecting fresh,
unprocessed foods like fruit and yogurt, the client demonstrates proper adherence to a lowsodium
diet for effective blood pressure management.
Question 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual
tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. “You should swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.”
Downloaded by NELSON KIIRU ()
ATI PN Fundamentals and PN ATI Pharmacology Proctored
Exam with NGN 70 Questions for Fundamentals and 60 for
Pharmacology and Answers
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and is prescribed epoetin alfa.
Which finding should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?
A. Decreased serum potassium levels.
B. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
C. Lowered blood pressure readings.
D. Reduced serum creatinine levels.
The correct answer is B. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form
of erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. It is commonly
prescribed for clients with chronic kidney disease who develop anemia due to decreased natural
erythropoietin production. Effectiveness is evaluated by improvement in hemoglobin and
hematocrit levels, which indicate increased red blood cell production. Option A is incorrect
because epoetin alfa does not directly affect potassium. Option C is incorrect since blood pressure
may actually increase as a side effect, not decrease. Option D is also incorrect because creatinine
levels reflect kidney function, and epoetin alfa does not improve renal
Clearance. Therefore, the therapeutic goal is increased red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and
hematocrit.
Question 2
A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions for a client prescribed furosemide. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A. “I will weigh myself weekly to check for fluid loss.”
B. “I will limit foods high in potassium while on this medication.”
C. “I will rise slowly when getting out of bed to prevent dizziness.”
D. “I will stop taking the medication if I experience increased urination.”
Downloaded by NELSON KIIRU ()
, lOMoARcPSD|26582732
The correct answer is C. “I will rise slowly when getting out of bed to prevent dizziness.”
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary output to reduce fluid overload, commonly in
clients with heart failure, hypertension, or renal disease. One of its major adverse effects is
orthostatic hypotension due to rapid fluid loss, so clients should change positions slowly to avoid
dizziness and fainting. Option A is incorrect because the client should weigh daily, not weekly, to
detect sudden fluid retention or loss. Option B is incorrect because furosemide can cause
potassium loss, so the client should actually increase potassium-rich foods. Option D is wrong
since increased urination is an expected effect, not a reason to discontinue therapy. Correct
teaching emphasizes safety precautions such as slow position changes.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative after abdominal surgery. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately? A. Pain at the incision site
rated 7 out of 10.
B. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all quadrants.
C. Purulent drainage at the surgical site.
D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
The correct answer is C. Purulent drainage at the surgical site. Purulent drainage indicates a
possible wound infection, which is a serious postoperative complication requiring immediate
provider notification and intervention. Pain at the incision site (option A) is expected within the first
24 to 48 hours, although it should be managed. Hypoactive bowel sounds (option B) are common
after abdominal surgery due to anesthesia and manipulation of the intestines, so this finding is not
immediately concerning. A mild postoperative temperature of 37.8°C (option D) is expected as part
of the normal inflammatory response in the first 48 hours. Therefore, purulent drainage is the most
urgent finding, as it suggests infection that may spread if untreated.
Question 4
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has hypertension. Which food choice by
the client indicates an understanding of a low-sodium diet? A. Canned vegetable soup with
crackers.
B. Fresh fruit salad with plain yogurt.
C. Smoked turkey sandwich on white bread.
D. Pickles and processed cheese slices.
The correct answer is B. Fresh fruit salad with plain yogurt. A low-sodium diet is essential in
managing hypertension, as sodium promotes fluid retention and increases blood pressure. Fresh
fruits and plain yogurt are naturally low in sodium and make an excellent choice. Option A is
incorrect because canned soups are often high in sodium. Option C is also high in sodium due to
smoked meats and processed bread. Option D contains pickles and processed cheese, both of
which are heavily salted and inappropriate for a hypertensive client. By selecting fresh,
unprocessed foods like fruit and yogurt, the client demonstrates proper adherence to a lowsodium
diet for effective blood pressure management.
Question 5
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A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual
tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. “You should swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.”
B. “You may take up to three tablets, five minutes apart, for chest pain.”
C. “You can store the tablets in a weekly pill organizer for convenience.”
D. “You should take the tablet before exercising to prevent low blood sugar.”
The correct answer is B. “You may take up to three tablets, five minutes apart, for chest
pain.” Sublingual nitroglycerin works rapidly to relieve angina by dilating coronary arteries and
increasing blood flow to the heart. Clients should be instructed to place the tablet under the
tongue and let it dissolve, not swallow it (option A). They may take one tablet every five
minutes, up to three tablets within 15 minutes, but must call emergency services if pain persists
after the first dose. Option C is incorrect because nitroglycerin must be stored in its original dark
glass container to maintain potency. Option D is unrelated to nitroglycerin use, as it is not used to
prevent hypoglycemia. Correct teaching ensures safe and effective management of angina
symptoms.
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and is prescribed epoetin alfa.
Which finding should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?
A. Decreased serum potassium levels.
B. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
C. Lowered blood pressure readings.
D. Reduced serum creatinine levels.
The correct answer is B. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form
of erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. It is commonly
prescribed for clients with chronic kidney disease who develop anemia due to decreased natural
erythropoietin production. Effectiveness is evaluated by improvement in hemoglobin and
hematocrit levels, which indicate increased red blood cell production. Option A is incorrect
because epoetin alfa does not directly affect potassium. Option C is incorrect since blood pressure
may actually increase as a side effect, not decrease. Option D is also incorrect because creatinine
levels reflect kidney function, and epoetin alfa does not improve renal clearance. Therefore, the
therapeutic goal is increased red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit.
Question 2
A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions for a client prescribed furosemide. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A. “I will weigh myself weekly to check for fluid loss.”
B. “I will limit foods high in potassium while on this medication.”
C. “I will rise slowly when getting out of bed to prevent dizziness.”
D. “I will stop taking the medication if I experience increased urination.”
The correct answer is C. “I will rise slowly when getting out of bed to prevent dizziness.”
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary output to reduce fluid overload, commonly in
clients with heart failure, hypertension, or renal disease. One of its major adverse effects is
Downloaded by NELSON KIIRU ()
, lOMoARcPSD|26582732
orthostatic hypotension due to rapid fluid loss, so clients should change positions slowly to avoid
dizziness and fainting. Option A is incorrect because the client should weigh daily, not weekly, to
detect sudden fluid retention or loss. Option B is incorrect because furosemide can cause
potassium loss, so the client should actually increase potassium-rich foods. Option D is wrong
since increased urination is an expected effect, not a reason to discontinue therapy. Correct
teaching emphasizes safety precautions such as slow position changes.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative after abdominal surgery. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately? A. Pain at the incision site
rated 7 out of 10.
B. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all quadrants.
C. Purulent drainage at the surgical site.
D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
The correct answer is C. Purulent drainage at the surgical site. Purulent drainage indicates a
possible wound infection, which is a serious postoperative complication requiring immediate
provider notification and intervention. Pain at the incision site (option A) is expected within the first
24 to 48 hours, although it should be managed. Hypoactive bowel sounds (option B) are common
after abdominal surgery due to anesthesia and manipulation of the intestines, so this finding is not
immediately concerning. A mild postoperative temperature of 37.8°C (option D) is expected as part
of the normal inflammatory response in the first 48 hours. Therefore, purulent drainage is the most
urgent finding, as it suggests infection that may spread if untreated.
Question 4
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has hypertension. Which food choice by
the client indicates an understanding of a low-sodium diet? A. Canned vegetable soup with
crackers.
B. Fresh fruit salad with plain yogurt.
C. Smoked turkey sandwich on white bread.
D. Pickles and processed cheese slices.
The correct answer is B. Fresh fruit salad with plain yogurt. A low-sodium diet is essential in
managing hypertension, as sodium promotes fluid retention and increases blood pressure. Fresh
fruits and plain yogurt are naturally low in sodium and make an excellent choice. Option A is
incorrect because canned soups are often high in sodium. Option C is also high in sodium due to
smoked meats and processed bread. Option D contains pickles and processed cheese, both of
which are heavily salted and inappropriate for a hypertensive client. By selecting fresh,
unprocessed foods like fruit and yogurt, the client demonstrates proper adherence to a lowsodium
diet for effective blood pressure management.
Question 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual
tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. “You should swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.”
Downloaded by NELSON KIIRU ()
