RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 180 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS 2026 LATEST UPDATE COVERING THE NEW
UPDATED QUESTIONS GUARANTEE A HIGH PASS MARK
1. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding is most consistent
with this diagnosis?
A. Weight gain and cold intolerance
B. Exophthalmos and heat intolerance
C. Bradycardia and lethargy
D. Constipation and dry skin
Rationale: Hyperthyroidism increases metabolism, leading to weight loss, heat intolerance, tachycardia,
and exophthalmos.
2. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely for a client taking warfarin?
A. aPTT
B. PT/INR
C. Platelet count
D. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Warfarin affects vitamin K–dependent clotting factors; PT/INR measures anticoagulation
effectiveness.
3. A client with heart failure has an ejection fraction (EF) of 35%. Which class of medication improves
mortality?
A. Loop diuretics
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Beta-agonists
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce afterload, improve survival, and slow heart failure progression.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which diet modification is
appropriate?
A. High protein
B. Low potassium
C. High sodium
D. High phosphate
Rationale: CKD reduces potassium excretion; a low-potassium diet prevents hyperkalemia.
,5. The nurse is administering morphine IV to a client. Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
B. Respiratory rate 8/min
C. Pain score 6/10
D. Heart rate 90 bpm
Rationale: Morphine can depress respiration; RR <10 is critical and requires intervention.
6. A client has been prescribed albuterol for asthma. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tremors and tachycardia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Constipation
Rationale: Albuterol is a beta-agonist causing sympathetic stimulation (tremors, tachycardia).
7. A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take my pulse for 1 minute before each dose.”
B. “I can double the dose if I miss one.”
C. “I do not need to limit salt intake.”
D. “It is safe to stop the drug abruptly.”
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; pulse check is essential before administration.
8. Which assessment finding is most concerning for a client with pneumonia?
A. Temp 101°F, RR 28
B. SpO₂ 88% on room air
C. Cough with sputum
D. Mild fatigue
Rationale: Hypoxemia (SpO₂ <90%) is critical and requires immediate intervention.
9. A client is receiving heparin. Which lab test should the nurse monitor?
A. PT
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Rationale: Heparin prolongs aPTT; it is monitored to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation.
,10. Which client statement indicates understanding of insulin administration?
A. “I will inject insulin into the abdomen for faster absorption.”
B. “I can inject insulin into the thigh for faster absorption.”
C. “I will inject insulin into the deltoid for faster absorption.”
D. “I will inject insulin into the forearm for faster absorption.”
Rationale: Insulin absorption is fastest in the abdomen compared to other sites.
11. A client has a newly diagnosed DVT. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Apply warm compresses
B. Encourage vigorous exercise
C. Massage the affected limb
D. Place the limb in a dependent position
Rationale: Warmth reduces pain and promotes circulation; massage or dependent positioning increases
risk of embolization.
12. A client reports chest pain. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Obtain a full history
B. Administer aspirin
C. Assess vital signs
D. Perform a physical assessment
Rationale: According to ABCs and ACLS priorities, interventions that prevent myocardial injury (like
aspirin) take precedence.
13. A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with heavy vaginal bleeding. Which is the first action?
A. Assess fundus
B. Notify provider
C. Administer oxytocin
D. Monitor vitals every hour
Rationale: Fundal assessment identifies uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage.
14. Which client is at highest risk for developing type 2 diabetes?
A. 25-year-old marathon runner
B. 45-year-old with BMI 32 and family history
C. 30-year-old with no comorbidities
, D. 50-year-old vegetarian with normal BMI
Rationale: Obesity and family history are major risk factors for type 2 diabetes.
15. Which symptom is consistent with hyperglycemia?
A. Diaphoresis and tremors
B. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
C. Pallor and confusion
D. Tachycardia and jitteriness
Rationale: High blood glucose causes osmotic diuresis, increased thirst, and hunger.
16. A client is receiving furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia.
17. A nurse is assessing a client with COPD. Which finding is expected?
A. Pink, well-perfused skin
B. Barrel chest and prolonged expiratory phase
C. Crackles in bases only
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: Chronic COPD causes air trapping, barrel chest, and prolonged expiration.
18. A client is prescribed enoxaparin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Inject subcutaneously into abdomen
B. Take orally with food
C. Avoid all physical activity
D. Massage injection site after administration
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously; massage can cause bleeding.
19. Which symptom is most concerning for a client on lithium therapy?
A. Mild tremor
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Polyuria
CORRECT ANSWERS 2026 LATEST UPDATE COVERING THE NEW
UPDATED QUESTIONS GUARANTEE A HIGH PASS MARK
1. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding is most consistent
with this diagnosis?
A. Weight gain and cold intolerance
B. Exophthalmos and heat intolerance
C. Bradycardia and lethargy
D. Constipation and dry skin
Rationale: Hyperthyroidism increases metabolism, leading to weight loss, heat intolerance, tachycardia,
and exophthalmos.
2. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely for a client taking warfarin?
A. aPTT
B. PT/INR
C. Platelet count
D. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Warfarin affects vitamin K–dependent clotting factors; PT/INR measures anticoagulation
effectiveness.
3. A client with heart failure has an ejection fraction (EF) of 35%. Which class of medication improves
mortality?
A. Loop diuretics
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Beta-agonists
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce afterload, improve survival, and slow heart failure progression.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which diet modification is
appropriate?
A. High protein
B. Low potassium
C. High sodium
D. High phosphate
Rationale: CKD reduces potassium excretion; a low-potassium diet prevents hyperkalemia.
,5. The nurse is administering morphine IV to a client. Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
B. Respiratory rate 8/min
C. Pain score 6/10
D. Heart rate 90 bpm
Rationale: Morphine can depress respiration; RR <10 is critical and requires intervention.
6. A client has been prescribed albuterol for asthma. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tremors and tachycardia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Constipation
Rationale: Albuterol is a beta-agonist causing sympathetic stimulation (tremors, tachycardia).
7. A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take my pulse for 1 minute before each dose.”
B. “I can double the dose if I miss one.”
C. “I do not need to limit salt intake.”
D. “It is safe to stop the drug abruptly.”
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; pulse check is essential before administration.
8. Which assessment finding is most concerning for a client with pneumonia?
A. Temp 101°F, RR 28
B. SpO₂ 88% on room air
C. Cough with sputum
D. Mild fatigue
Rationale: Hypoxemia (SpO₂ <90%) is critical and requires immediate intervention.
9. A client is receiving heparin. Which lab test should the nurse monitor?
A. PT
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Rationale: Heparin prolongs aPTT; it is monitored to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation.
,10. Which client statement indicates understanding of insulin administration?
A. “I will inject insulin into the abdomen for faster absorption.”
B. “I can inject insulin into the thigh for faster absorption.”
C. “I will inject insulin into the deltoid for faster absorption.”
D. “I will inject insulin into the forearm for faster absorption.”
Rationale: Insulin absorption is fastest in the abdomen compared to other sites.
11. A client has a newly diagnosed DVT. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Apply warm compresses
B. Encourage vigorous exercise
C. Massage the affected limb
D. Place the limb in a dependent position
Rationale: Warmth reduces pain and promotes circulation; massage or dependent positioning increases
risk of embolization.
12. A client reports chest pain. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Obtain a full history
B. Administer aspirin
C. Assess vital signs
D. Perform a physical assessment
Rationale: According to ABCs and ACLS priorities, interventions that prevent myocardial injury (like
aspirin) take precedence.
13. A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with heavy vaginal bleeding. Which is the first action?
A. Assess fundus
B. Notify provider
C. Administer oxytocin
D. Monitor vitals every hour
Rationale: Fundal assessment identifies uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage.
14. Which client is at highest risk for developing type 2 diabetes?
A. 25-year-old marathon runner
B. 45-year-old with BMI 32 and family history
C. 30-year-old with no comorbidities
, D. 50-year-old vegetarian with normal BMI
Rationale: Obesity and family history are major risk factors for type 2 diabetes.
15. Which symptom is consistent with hyperglycemia?
A. Diaphoresis and tremors
B. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
C. Pallor and confusion
D. Tachycardia and jitteriness
Rationale: High blood glucose causes osmotic diuresis, increased thirst, and hunger.
16. A client is receiving furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia.
17. A nurse is assessing a client with COPD. Which finding is expected?
A. Pink, well-perfused skin
B. Barrel chest and prolonged expiratory phase
C. Crackles in bases only
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: Chronic COPD causes air trapping, barrel chest, and prolonged expiration.
18. A client is prescribed enoxaparin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Inject subcutaneously into abdomen
B. Take orally with food
C. Avoid all physical activity
D. Massage injection site after administration
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously; massage can cause bleeding.
19. Which symptom is most concerning for a client on lithium therapy?
A. Mild tremor
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Polyuria
