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AAFP Board Review Exam Questions with Correct Answers - HemOnc

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AAFP Board Review Exam Questions with Correct Answers - HemOnc

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Subido en
28 de octubre de 2025
Número de páginas
16
Escrito en
2025/2026
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Examen
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AAFP Board Review - HemOnc


A 43-year-old female complains of easy bruising. She is otherwise asymptomatic. A CBC

reveals a platelet count of 23,000/mm3 (N 150,000-450,000). A peripheral smear reveals giant

platelets. A workup is negative for autoimmune causes, including Graves disease, HIV,

Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, varicella zoster, hepatitis C, and Helicobacter pylori. She

is on no prescription or over-the-counter medications and denies alcohol or drug use.



Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial management? (check one)

A. Platelet transfusion

B. Corticosteroids

C. Thrombopoietin-receptor agonists

D. A bone marrow biopsy

E. Splenectomy - Answer-B. Corticosteroids - Immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura

- acquired immune-mediated disorder with

isolated thrombocytopenia not found to have another cause

- Treat severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count <50,000/mm3) unless there is evidence of acute
bleeding.

- Corticosteroids first-line therapy or Intravenous immunoglobulin and rituximab

- thrombopoietin-receptor agonists 2nd line or splenectomy.

- bone marrow biopsy, to rule out myelodysplastic

syndrome and lymphoproliferative disorders is indicated in patients over the age of 60

- no platelet transfusion

,A 55-year-old white male comes to your office with weakness and a headache. He also describes an
annoying pruritus that occurs frequently after he takes a hot shower. The physical examination is
remarkable for the presence of an enlarged spleen. He has a hemoglobin level of 21 g/dL (N 12-16) and a
hematocrit of 63% (N 36-48). To confirm your clinical diagnosis, you obtain additional studies.



Which one of the following would be most consistent with the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
(check one)

A. A low serum erythropoietin level

B. A low platelet count

C. A low arterial oxygen concentration

D. An elevated carboxyhemoglobin level - Answer-A. A low serum erythropoietin level - polycythemia
vera.

- Pruritus after a hot shower (aquagenic pruritus) and splenomegaly distinguish polycythemia vera from
other causes of erythrocytosis (hematocrit >55%).

- Specific criteria: elevated red cell mass, a normal arterial oxygen saturation (>92%)

- a low serum erythropoietin level

- thrombocytosis (platelet count >400,000/mm3 ), leukocytosis (WBC>12,000/mm3 )

- high leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score

- High carboxyhemoglobin levels are associated with secondary polycythemia.



A 62-year-old African-American female undergoes a workup for pruritus. Laboratory findings include a
hematocrit of 55.0% (N 36.0-46.0) and a hemoglobin level of 18.5 g/dL (N 12.0-16.0).

Which one of the following additional findings would help establish the diagnosis of polycythemia vera?
(check one)

A. A platelet count >400,000/mm3

B. An O2 saturation <90%

C. A WBC count <4500/mm (N 4300-10,800)3

D. An elevated uric acid level - Answer-A. A platelet count >400,000/mm3

Major criteria

, - increased red cell mass, a normal O2 saturation, splenomegaly

Minor criteria

-high vitamin B 12, elevated leukocyte alkaline phosphatase, a platelet count >400,000/mm3 and a WBC
count >12,000/mm3 .

- Patients with polycythemia vera may present with gout and an elevated uric acid level, but neither is
considered a criterion for the diagnosis.



Which one of the following causes of anemia is associated with a normal red cell distribution width?
(check one)

A. Vitamin B12 deficiency

B. Iron deficiency

C. β-Thalassemia trait

D. Sideroblastic anemia

E. Myelofibrosis - Answer-C. beta Thalassemia

- Red cell distribution width (RDW) is a measure of the variability of size of the red cells.

- particularly useful in distinguishing anemic disorders

- especially iron deficiency anemia (high RDW, normal to low mean corpuscular volume)

- uncomplicated heterozygous thalassemia (normal RDW, low mean corpuscular volume).



In a patient with microcytic anemia, which one of the following patterns of laboratory abnormalities
would be most consistent with iron deficiency as the underlying cause? (check one)

A. Ferritin low, total iron binding capacity (TIBC) low, serum iron low

B. Ferritin low, TIBC low, serum iron high

C. Ferritin low, TIBC high, serum iron low

D. Ferritin high, TIBC low, serum iron low - Answer-C. Ferritin low, TIBC high, serum iron low

- Ferritin and serum iron levels fall with iron deficiency.
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