NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 1 2025 Prep Test Bank
with 350 VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS &
RATIONALES | ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR WITH NGN LATEST VERSION
A hospital has an extremely low incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia.
To which of the following reasons may this be attributed?
A. periodic discontinuation of sedation
B. use of respiratory precautions with the population
C. diversion of infectious patients to other facilities
D. broad use of prophylactic antibiotics –
Correct Answer :A.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
The incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia, or VAP, is lowered by using a
closed system suction catheter, periodically discontinuing sedation, keeping the
patient and semi-Fowler's position, and proper handwashing among caregivers.
All are correct.
A pressure-volume loop ventilator graphic shows no rise in pressure for the first
200 mL of delivered volume. The therapist should
A. increase inspiratory flow rate
B. increase PEEP
C. decrease tidal volume
D. decrease inspiratory flow rate –
Correct Answer :B.
In this question the description of the pressure volume loop would indicate a flat
bottom as manifested by no rise in pressure with the first 200 mL of delivered
volume. We call this a "flat football". The solution is to increase PEEP to a level
that the pressure begins to rise immediately as volume is introduced.
Which of the following would be the most effective, appropriate method for
resolving atelectasis in a spontaneously breathing, post operative patient who is
under the influence of sedation and will not respond to verbal stimuli?
A. IPPB
B. sustained maximal inhalation (incentive spirometer)
C. deep breathing coaching
D. intubation and mechanical ventilation –
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
Correct Answer :A.
A postoperative patient under sedation, and possibly in pain, may be tempted
to breathe less, causing respiratory acidosis and atelectasis. To correct this
problem, IPPB therapy is most appropriate. Incentive spirometry would also
help but the patient is unable to respond to verbal stimuli. This alone is an
indication for IPPB therapy.
After performing minimum occluding volume technique with a 65-kg (143-lb)
patient who is orally intubated with a 7.0-mm ET tube, the respiratory therapist
should NEXT
A. check ET tube cuff pressure
B. perform tracheal palpation
C. order a chest radiograph
D. document ET tube markings at the lips –
Correct Answer :A.
The ET tube cuff pressure may be adjusted correctly by several techniques
including minimum leak technique (also called minimum occluding volume,
minimal seal technique, and the use of a pressure manometer called a
cuffalator. If minimum seal or minimal leak technique is used, the respiratory
therapist is still required to monitor the pressure after the technique is
performed. Although this is often not done in real life, it is technically part of the
procedure.
The respiratory therapist observes an ECG wave form on a patient that is
consistent with atrial tachycardia. The patient is complaining of chest pain,
dizziness, and nausea. The respiratory therapist should recommend
A. unsynchronized defibrillation
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
B. Atropine sulfate
C. epinephrine
D. cardioversion –
Correct Answer :D.
Non-deadly arrhythmias, such as this one, may be addressed through
cardioversion. Cardioversion is a form of defibrillation with low wattage and with
the synchronization set to "active". This allows the shock to be synchronized to
the R wave.
A 38-year-old male presents in the emergency department (ED) complaining of
frequent vomiting. The following laboratory data is available: Arterial blood
gases
pH 7.55 PaCO2 42 torrPaO2 85 torrHCO3- 31 mEq/LBE +7 mEq/LFIO2 0.21K+ 3.0
mEq/LCl- 95 mEq/LNa+ 135 mEq/L
Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. administer NaCL
B. administer NaHCO3-
C. administer KCL
D. administer volume-expanding fluids –
Correct Answer :C.
This patient has a CO2 of 42 mmHg, which suggests adequate ventilation.
However, the high pH is associated with alkalosis. Because the CO2 is normal,
the cause of the alkalosis must be metabolic in nature. One treatment for
metabolic alkalosis is to administer potassium chloride or KCl.
A+ TEST BANK 4
NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 1 2025 Prep Test Bank
with 350 VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS &
RATIONALES | ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR WITH NGN LATEST VERSION
A hospital has an extremely low incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia.
To which of the following reasons may this be attributed?
A. periodic discontinuation of sedation
B. use of respiratory precautions with the population
C. diversion of infectious patients to other facilities
D. broad use of prophylactic antibiotics –
Correct Answer :A.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
The incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia, or VAP, is lowered by using a
closed system suction catheter, periodically discontinuing sedation, keeping the
patient and semi-Fowler's position, and proper handwashing among caregivers.
All are correct.
A pressure-volume loop ventilator graphic shows no rise in pressure for the first
200 mL of delivered volume. The therapist should
A. increase inspiratory flow rate
B. increase PEEP
C. decrease tidal volume
D. decrease inspiratory flow rate –
Correct Answer :B.
In this question the description of the pressure volume loop would indicate a flat
bottom as manifested by no rise in pressure with the first 200 mL of delivered
volume. We call this a "flat football". The solution is to increase PEEP to a level
that the pressure begins to rise immediately as volume is introduced.
Which of the following would be the most effective, appropriate method for
resolving atelectasis in a spontaneously breathing, post operative patient who is
under the influence of sedation and will not respond to verbal stimuli?
A. IPPB
B. sustained maximal inhalation (incentive spirometer)
C. deep breathing coaching
D. intubation and mechanical ventilation –
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
Correct Answer :A.
A postoperative patient under sedation, and possibly in pain, may be tempted
to breathe less, causing respiratory acidosis and atelectasis. To correct this
problem, IPPB therapy is most appropriate. Incentive spirometry would also
help but the patient is unable to respond to verbal stimuli. This alone is an
indication for IPPB therapy.
After performing minimum occluding volume technique with a 65-kg (143-lb)
patient who is orally intubated with a 7.0-mm ET tube, the respiratory therapist
should NEXT
A. check ET tube cuff pressure
B. perform tracheal palpation
C. order a chest radiograph
D. document ET tube markings at the lips –
Correct Answer :A.
The ET tube cuff pressure may be adjusted correctly by several techniques
including minimum leak technique (also called minimum occluding volume,
minimal seal technique, and the use of a pressure manometer called a
cuffalator. If minimum seal or minimal leak technique is used, the respiratory
therapist is still required to monitor the pressure after the technique is
performed. Although this is often not done in real life, it is technically part of the
procedure.
The respiratory therapist observes an ECG wave form on a patient that is
consistent with atrial tachycardia. The patient is complaining of chest pain,
dizziness, and nausea. The respiratory therapist should recommend
A. unsynchronized defibrillation
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
B. Atropine sulfate
C. epinephrine
D. cardioversion –
Correct Answer :D.
Non-deadly arrhythmias, such as this one, may be addressed through
cardioversion. Cardioversion is a form of defibrillation with low wattage and with
the synchronization set to "active". This allows the shock to be synchronized to
the R wave.
A 38-year-old male presents in the emergency department (ED) complaining of
frequent vomiting. The following laboratory data is available: Arterial blood
gases
pH 7.55 PaCO2 42 torrPaO2 85 torrHCO3- 31 mEq/LBE +7 mEq/LFIO2 0.21K+ 3.0
mEq/LCl- 95 mEq/LNa+ 135 mEq/L
Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. administer NaCL
B. administer NaHCO3-
C. administer KCL
D. administer volume-expanding fluids –
Correct Answer :C.
This patient has a CO2 of 42 mmHg, which suggests adequate ventilation.
However, the high pH is associated with alkalosis. Because the CO2 is normal,
the cause of the alkalosis must be metabolic in nature. One treatment for
metabolic alkalosis is to administer potassium chloride or KCl.
A+ TEST BANK 4
