NPTE EXAM 3 integ Questions with Detailed
Verified Answers
Random NPTE stuff (from PEAT) Questions with Detailed Verified Answers
Right lateral segment postural drainage Ans: Left sidelying with legs raised 18 inches
What is a typical location (dermatome) for occurrence of shingles rash Ans: T11 - T12
dermatome along the iliac crest
A patient with right shoulder pain exhibits bruising, palmar erythema and signs of
confusion - which organ is most likely involved Ans: Liver
S&S of liver disease A 78-year-old female residing in a skilled nursing facility presents
with a Stage 3 pressure injury over the sacrum. The wound bed is 75% granulation
tissue with 25% yellow slough. There is moderate exudate, no signs of infection, and
the periwound skin is intact. The patient is chair-bound most of the day. Which
dressing would be most appropriate at this stage of healing? Ans: B. Foam dressing
A 65-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a plantar foot ulcer.
The wound is dry with black eschar and no drainage. Pulses are palpable, and there are
no signs of infection or ischemia. What is the most appropriate dressing to initiate
wound bed preparation? Ans: A. Hydrogel
A 72-year-old female presents with a venous leg ulcer located above the medial
malleolus. The wound bed is shallow and filled with granulation tissue. There is heavy
exudate and maceration of the periwound skin. ABI is 1.0, and no infection is present.
Which dressing is most appropriate to manage this wound? Ans: C. Calcium alginate
What type of dressing is most appropriate for a dry wound with exposed tendon in a
malnourished patient? Ans: C. Moist saline gauze with hydrogel
A 42-year-old woman presents with a chronic venous ulcer on the medial left ankle.
The wound bed is 75% slough and 25% friable granulation. There is moderate-to-heavy
drainage and no signs of infection. Periwound maceration is present. Which
debridement method is most appropriate for this patient? Ans: B. Autolytic
debridement
,An 82-year-old male in long-term care presents with a Stage 3 pressure injury over the
right heel. The wound is covered in dry black eschar. The wound is not infected, pulses
are diminished, and there is known arterial insufficiency. Which debridement technique
is contraindicated for this wound? Ans: C. Sharp debridement
A 55-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with a tunneling foot ulcer
containing moist necrotic tissue. The wound is clean, and there are no signs of
infection. The patient reports high levels of pain with dressing changes. Which
debridement method is least appropriate for this wound? Ans: C. Mechanical
debridement
A 60-year-old male with a chronic foot ulcer has moderate slough and exposed
tendon. He has no signs of systemic infection. ABI is 0.9. The wound has been present
for over 3 months. Which debridement strategy is most appropriate? Ans: C.
Enzymatic debridement
A patient presents with a moderate-sized leg ulcer with 50% yellow slough. The tissue
is easily separated, and the patient has no bleeding risk, no infection, and minimal pain.
The goal is rapid wound bed preparation for advanced therapy. Which debridement
method is most efficient and appropriate in this case? Ans: A. Sharp debridement
A 67-year-old female with a chronic venous leg ulcer reports that the wound has not
improved in the past 4 weeks. The wound is shallow, has irregular edges, minimal
granulation, moderate serous drainage, and no signs of infection. Periwound skin is dry
but intact. Which modality is MOST appropriate to stimulate granulation tissue and
wound progression? Ans: C. High-voltage pulsed current (HVPC)
A 59-year-old male with diabetes presents with a plantar foot ulcer containing
moderate slough and exposed tendon. The wound is undermined and has been present
for over 3 months. ABI = 0.9. No signs of infection are present. Which modality would
be MOST appropriate to assist debridement and promote healing without damaging
exposed tissue? Ans: B. Low-frequency non-thermal ultrasound
A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a Stage 3 pressure injury over the
sacrum. The wound has moderate exudate, soft yellow slough, and no signs of systemic
infection. The patient has limited mobility and mild cognitive impairment. Which
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, modality is MOST appropriate to reduce bioburden and prepare the wound bed while
minimizing trauma? Ans: A. Pulsed lavage with suction
A 61-year-old post-surgical patient presents with an abdominal dehiscence wound.
There is exposed fascia, high exudate output, and irregular wound edges. The patient is
hemodynamically stable, and the surrounding skin is intact. What is the MOST
appropriate intervention to manage exudate and promote granulation in this wound?
Ans: C. Negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT)
A 58-year-old female presents to your clinic with right upper extremity heaviness,
aching, and progressive swelling following a mastectomy and axillary lymph node
dissection 8 months ago. You observe fewer wrinkles on the dorsum of the hand and a
positive Stemmer’s sign at the second digit. What is the MOST likely stage of
lymphedema in this patient? Ans: C. Stage II
A 63-year-old woman reports progressive swelling in her right leg over the past 3
months. She has a history of pelvic radiation and lymph node removal for uterine
cancer. On exam, pitting edema lasts over 45 seconds, ABI is 0.7, and there is
circumferential swelling throughout the leg. What is the MOST appropriate next step
in the plan of care? Ans: B. Refer to vascular specialist before initiating compression
A patient reports tightness and fullness in her left arm two months after completing
radiation therapy for breast cancer. There is no visible swelling yet, but she says her
sleeve feels tighter and her rings no longer fit. What is the MOST appropriate
classification of this patient’s condition? Ans: A. Stage 0 lymphedema
A 72-year-old male presents with left leg swelling and reports previous DVT. He
currently takes a diuretic and shows signs of mild fibrosis. His ABI is 0.9, and he is
cognitively intact but struggles with remembering self-bandaging techniques. What is
the MOST appropriate modification to support his care plan? Ans: D. Incorporate
caregiver education and simplify wrapping
A 42-year-old woman presents with a plantar ulcer surrounded by thick callous and
filled with soft, adherent eschar. The wound bed is moist with scant drainage. No signs
of infection are present. What is the BEST initial debridement strategy for this patient?
Ans: C. Sharp debridement followed by enzymatic
© Get it right 2025 Getaway - Stuvia US All rights reserved
Verified Answers
Random NPTE stuff (from PEAT) Questions with Detailed Verified Answers
Right lateral segment postural drainage Ans: Left sidelying with legs raised 18 inches
What is a typical location (dermatome) for occurrence of shingles rash Ans: T11 - T12
dermatome along the iliac crest
A patient with right shoulder pain exhibits bruising, palmar erythema and signs of
confusion - which organ is most likely involved Ans: Liver
S&S of liver disease A 78-year-old female residing in a skilled nursing facility presents
with a Stage 3 pressure injury over the sacrum. The wound bed is 75% granulation
tissue with 25% yellow slough. There is moderate exudate, no signs of infection, and
the periwound skin is intact. The patient is chair-bound most of the day. Which
dressing would be most appropriate at this stage of healing? Ans: B. Foam dressing
A 65-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a plantar foot ulcer.
The wound is dry with black eschar and no drainage. Pulses are palpable, and there are
no signs of infection or ischemia. What is the most appropriate dressing to initiate
wound bed preparation? Ans: A. Hydrogel
A 72-year-old female presents with a venous leg ulcer located above the medial
malleolus. The wound bed is shallow and filled with granulation tissue. There is heavy
exudate and maceration of the periwound skin. ABI is 1.0, and no infection is present.
Which dressing is most appropriate to manage this wound? Ans: C. Calcium alginate
What type of dressing is most appropriate for a dry wound with exposed tendon in a
malnourished patient? Ans: C. Moist saline gauze with hydrogel
A 42-year-old woman presents with a chronic venous ulcer on the medial left ankle.
The wound bed is 75% slough and 25% friable granulation. There is moderate-to-heavy
drainage and no signs of infection. Periwound maceration is present. Which
debridement method is most appropriate for this patient? Ans: B. Autolytic
debridement
,An 82-year-old male in long-term care presents with a Stage 3 pressure injury over the
right heel. The wound is covered in dry black eschar. The wound is not infected, pulses
are diminished, and there is known arterial insufficiency. Which debridement technique
is contraindicated for this wound? Ans: C. Sharp debridement
A 55-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with a tunneling foot ulcer
containing moist necrotic tissue. The wound is clean, and there are no signs of
infection. The patient reports high levels of pain with dressing changes. Which
debridement method is least appropriate for this wound? Ans: C. Mechanical
debridement
A 60-year-old male with a chronic foot ulcer has moderate slough and exposed
tendon. He has no signs of systemic infection. ABI is 0.9. The wound has been present
for over 3 months. Which debridement strategy is most appropriate? Ans: C.
Enzymatic debridement
A patient presents with a moderate-sized leg ulcer with 50% yellow slough. The tissue
is easily separated, and the patient has no bleeding risk, no infection, and minimal pain.
The goal is rapid wound bed preparation for advanced therapy. Which debridement
method is most efficient and appropriate in this case? Ans: A. Sharp debridement
A 67-year-old female with a chronic venous leg ulcer reports that the wound has not
improved in the past 4 weeks. The wound is shallow, has irregular edges, minimal
granulation, moderate serous drainage, and no signs of infection. Periwound skin is dry
but intact. Which modality is MOST appropriate to stimulate granulation tissue and
wound progression? Ans: C. High-voltage pulsed current (HVPC)
A 59-year-old male with diabetes presents with a plantar foot ulcer containing
moderate slough and exposed tendon. The wound is undermined and has been present
for over 3 months. ABI = 0.9. No signs of infection are present. Which modality would
be MOST appropriate to assist debridement and promote healing without damaging
exposed tissue? Ans: B. Low-frequency non-thermal ultrasound
A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a Stage 3 pressure injury over the
sacrum. The wound has moderate exudate, soft yellow slough, and no signs of systemic
infection. The patient has limited mobility and mild cognitive impairment. Which
© Get it right 2025 Getaway - Stuvia US All rights reserved
, modality is MOST appropriate to reduce bioburden and prepare the wound bed while
minimizing trauma? Ans: A. Pulsed lavage with suction
A 61-year-old post-surgical patient presents with an abdominal dehiscence wound.
There is exposed fascia, high exudate output, and irregular wound edges. The patient is
hemodynamically stable, and the surrounding skin is intact. What is the MOST
appropriate intervention to manage exudate and promote granulation in this wound?
Ans: C. Negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT)
A 58-year-old female presents to your clinic with right upper extremity heaviness,
aching, and progressive swelling following a mastectomy and axillary lymph node
dissection 8 months ago. You observe fewer wrinkles on the dorsum of the hand and a
positive Stemmer’s sign at the second digit. What is the MOST likely stage of
lymphedema in this patient? Ans: C. Stage II
A 63-year-old woman reports progressive swelling in her right leg over the past 3
months. She has a history of pelvic radiation and lymph node removal for uterine
cancer. On exam, pitting edema lasts over 45 seconds, ABI is 0.7, and there is
circumferential swelling throughout the leg. What is the MOST appropriate next step
in the plan of care? Ans: B. Refer to vascular specialist before initiating compression
A patient reports tightness and fullness in her left arm two months after completing
radiation therapy for breast cancer. There is no visible swelling yet, but she says her
sleeve feels tighter and her rings no longer fit. What is the MOST appropriate
classification of this patient’s condition? Ans: A. Stage 0 lymphedema
A 72-year-old male presents with left leg swelling and reports previous DVT. He
currently takes a diuretic and shows signs of mild fibrosis. His ABI is 0.9, and he is
cognitively intact but struggles with remembering self-bandaging techniques. What is
the MOST appropriate modification to support his care plan? Ans: D. Incorporate
caregiver education and simplify wrapping
A 42-year-old woman presents with a plantar ulcer surrounded by thick callous and
filled with soft, adherent eschar. The wound bed is moist with scant drainage. No signs
of infection are present. What is the BEST initial debridement strategy for this patient?
Ans: C. Sharp debridement followed by enzymatic
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