CMC AACN EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026
ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED
PASS
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. What percentage of ventricular filling is passive and what percentage is
atrial kick? - ANSWER ✓ Passive - 75%
Atrial kick -- 25-35%
2. What 3 components make up stroke volume? - ANSWER ✓ Preload
Afterload
Contractility
3. Uses of beta blockers - ANSWER ✓ HTN
Classic angina (Coronary artery obstruction)
Ventricular and Supraventricular arrhythmia's
ACS
Heart failure
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
4. Clinical effects of beta blockers - ANSWER ✓ Decreased heart rate
Decreased contractility
Decreased automaticity
Decreased conduction velocity
Decreased renin release (kidneys)
5. Cardioselective beta blockers - ANSWER ✓ Block Beta 1 receptors
N-AMEBA
Nebivolol
Atenolol
Metoprolol**
, Esmolol
Bisoprolol**
Acebutolol
**are usually used in patients with CHF with co-morbid COPD, asthma
6. Alpha/Beta Blockers - ANSWER ✓ Labetalol -- HTN emergencies
Carvedilol -- Heart failure
7. nonselective beta blockers - ANSWER ✓ Block Beta 1 and Beta 2 blockers
Propranolol
Sotalol
Timolol
Nadolol
Oxprenolol
Penbutolol
Pindolol
8. What is malar blush? - ANSWER ✓ plum-red discoloration of the cheeks
that is indicative of mitral stenosis d/t CO2 retention and its vasodilatory
effects
9. What causes a Type I block? - ANSWER ✓ Block at the AV node
AV node is suppled by the RCA
10.What causes Second degree Type II blocks? - ANSWER ✓ Block at the
bundle of his
Bundle of his supplied by the LAD
11.What arteries supply the sinus node? - ANSWER ✓ RCA (55% of people)
LAD (45% of people)
12.While caring for a patient with an IABP at 3:1, the nurse notes:
, A. decreasing urine output as well as increasing BUN and CR levels; the
nurse should increase timing to 2:1
B. absent pulses in the proximal extremity; the nurse should apply
pressure at the insertion site.
C. blood in the IABP tubing; the nurse should disconnect the balloon
catheter from the IABP.
D. blood oozing from the insertion site; the nurse should anticipate the
need for an emergency fasciotomy. - ANSWER ✓ A. incorrect.
decreasing urine output with increasing BUN and CR levels with an
IABP in place indicates obstruction of the renal arteries. The nurse
should plan for removal.
B. incorrect. absent pulses distal to the insertion site indicates complete
occlusion of the femoral artery. application of pressure to the insertion site
will worsen the obstruction.
C. correct. blood in the IABP tubing indicates a rupture of the balloon.
Continuing to allow the IABP to inflate and deflate will increase the size of
the rupture, causing more bleeding. the nurse should plan for removal or
exchange of the IABP catheter.
D. incorrect. a fasciotomy would be indicated if the patient had an increase
in fluid accumulation in the extremities causing significant injury to the
limb.
13.An IABP is currently at 3:1 when the patient suddenly goes into ventricular
fibrillation. In addition to resuscitative measures, the nurse should:
A. change the trigger to internal or pressure support resuscitative
measures.
B. increase timing back to 1:1 to increase coronary artery perfusion
pressure.
C. put the pump on standby until the return of spontaneous circulation.
D. assess the IABP timing to chest compressions at 1:2. - ANSWER ✓
A. correct. the IABP will not be able to time correctly when a patient
is in V-Fib. by placing the system to trigger on internal or pressure
support, it will generate off the pressure created during compressions.
B. incorrect. attempting to time the IABP back to 1:1 will be
counterproductive, as it will not be able to trigger correctly.
C. incorrect. there is significant risk of clot forming on the IABP when
placed in stand for an indeterminate amount of time.
, D. incorrect. the primary goal during resuscitative measures is to attempt to
circulate blood volume as effectively as possible. assessing the timing of the
IABP is unnecessary.
14.The nurse is reviewing the home medications list for a patient admitted c/o
severe chest pain. serial EKGs and blood testing are negative, so an exercise
stress test is scheduled. which of the following medications may result in a
false-positive finding on the stress test?
A. digitalis (Digoxin)
B. potassium chloride (K-Dur)
C. sotalol (Betapace)
D. diltiazem (Cardiazem) - ANSWER ✓ A. correct. digitalis can cause
false-positive EKG changes during a stress test. there is an association
between the development of ST segment depression during stress
testing. the mechanism of this EKG change is not clear. further,
digitalis should be withheld on the day of the test because of its
negative chronotropic effects.
B. incorrect.
C & D. incorrect. beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers blunt the heart
rate response to exercise and may prevent achievement of maximum
predicted heart rate. they should be withheld on the day of the test.
15.A patient is admitted with elevated troponin levels and ST segment elevation
in leads II, III, and aVF. Administration of which of the following should the
nurse anticipate initially?
A. enoxaparin (Lovenox)
B. streptokinase (Strepase)
C. alteplase (Activase)
D. reteplase (Retavase) - ANSWER ✓ A. incorrect. enoxaparin is an
alternative to heparin in patients with unstable angina, NSTEMI or
DVT.
B. incorrect. streptokinase is indicated for acute arterial thrombosis or
embolism, or occluded AV cannulas.
C. incorrect. alteplase in indicated for acute ischemic stroke or acute massive
pulmonary embolism.
D. correct. reteplase is indicated for AMI when fibrinolytics are indicated.
16.Which of the following is a characteristic of diastolic heart failure?
A. inability of the heart muscle to relax.
ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED
PASS
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. What percentage of ventricular filling is passive and what percentage is
atrial kick? - ANSWER ✓ Passive - 75%
Atrial kick -- 25-35%
2. What 3 components make up stroke volume? - ANSWER ✓ Preload
Afterload
Contractility
3. Uses of beta blockers - ANSWER ✓ HTN
Classic angina (Coronary artery obstruction)
Ventricular and Supraventricular arrhythmia's
ACS
Heart failure
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
4. Clinical effects of beta blockers - ANSWER ✓ Decreased heart rate
Decreased contractility
Decreased automaticity
Decreased conduction velocity
Decreased renin release (kidneys)
5. Cardioselective beta blockers - ANSWER ✓ Block Beta 1 receptors
N-AMEBA
Nebivolol
Atenolol
Metoprolol**
, Esmolol
Bisoprolol**
Acebutolol
**are usually used in patients with CHF with co-morbid COPD, asthma
6. Alpha/Beta Blockers - ANSWER ✓ Labetalol -- HTN emergencies
Carvedilol -- Heart failure
7. nonselective beta blockers - ANSWER ✓ Block Beta 1 and Beta 2 blockers
Propranolol
Sotalol
Timolol
Nadolol
Oxprenolol
Penbutolol
Pindolol
8. What is malar blush? - ANSWER ✓ plum-red discoloration of the cheeks
that is indicative of mitral stenosis d/t CO2 retention and its vasodilatory
effects
9. What causes a Type I block? - ANSWER ✓ Block at the AV node
AV node is suppled by the RCA
10.What causes Second degree Type II blocks? - ANSWER ✓ Block at the
bundle of his
Bundle of his supplied by the LAD
11.What arteries supply the sinus node? - ANSWER ✓ RCA (55% of people)
LAD (45% of people)
12.While caring for a patient with an IABP at 3:1, the nurse notes:
, A. decreasing urine output as well as increasing BUN and CR levels; the
nurse should increase timing to 2:1
B. absent pulses in the proximal extremity; the nurse should apply
pressure at the insertion site.
C. blood in the IABP tubing; the nurse should disconnect the balloon
catheter from the IABP.
D. blood oozing from the insertion site; the nurse should anticipate the
need for an emergency fasciotomy. - ANSWER ✓ A. incorrect.
decreasing urine output with increasing BUN and CR levels with an
IABP in place indicates obstruction of the renal arteries. The nurse
should plan for removal.
B. incorrect. absent pulses distal to the insertion site indicates complete
occlusion of the femoral artery. application of pressure to the insertion site
will worsen the obstruction.
C. correct. blood in the IABP tubing indicates a rupture of the balloon.
Continuing to allow the IABP to inflate and deflate will increase the size of
the rupture, causing more bleeding. the nurse should plan for removal or
exchange of the IABP catheter.
D. incorrect. a fasciotomy would be indicated if the patient had an increase
in fluid accumulation in the extremities causing significant injury to the
limb.
13.An IABP is currently at 3:1 when the patient suddenly goes into ventricular
fibrillation. In addition to resuscitative measures, the nurse should:
A. change the trigger to internal or pressure support resuscitative
measures.
B. increase timing back to 1:1 to increase coronary artery perfusion
pressure.
C. put the pump on standby until the return of spontaneous circulation.
D. assess the IABP timing to chest compressions at 1:2. - ANSWER ✓
A. correct. the IABP will not be able to time correctly when a patient
is in V-Fib. by placing the system to trigger on internal or pressure
support, it will generate off the pressure created during compressions.
B. incorrect. attempting to time the IABP back to 1:1 will be
counterproductive, as it will not be able to trigger correctly.
C. incorrect. there is significant risk of clot forming on the IABP when
placed in stand for an indeterminate amount of time.
, D. incorrect. the primary goal during resuscitative measures is to attempt to
circulate blood volume as effectively as possible. assessing the timing of the
IABP is unnecessary.
14.The nurse is reviewing the home medications list for a patient admitted c/o
severe chest pain. serial EKGs and blood testing are negative, so an exercise
stress test is scheduled. which of the following medications may result in a
false-positive finding on the stress test?
A. digitalis (Digoxin)
B. potassium chloride (K-Dur)
C. sotalol (Betapace)
D. diltiazem (Cardiazem) - ANSWER ✓ A. correct. digitalis can cause
false-positive EKG changes during a stress test. there is an association
between the development of ST segment depression during stress
testing. the mechanism of this EKG change is not clear. further,
digitalis should be withheld on the day of the test because of its
negative chronotropic effects.
B. incorrect.
C & D. incorrect. beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers blunt the heart
rate response to exercise and may prevent achievement of maximum
predicted heart rate. they should be withheld on the day of the test.
15.A patient is admitted with elevated troponin levels and ST segment elevation
in leads II, III, and aVF. Administration of which of the following should the
nurse anticipate initially?
A. enoxaparin (Lovenox)
B. streptokinase (Strepase)
C. alteplase (Activase)
D. reteplase (Retavase) - ANSWER ✓ A. incorrect. enoxaparin is an
alternative to heparin in patients with unstable angina, NSTEMI or
DVT.
B. incorrect. streptokinase is indicated for acute arterial thrombosis or
embolism, or occluded AV cannulas.
C. incorrect. alteplase in indicated for acute ischemic stroke or acute massive
pulmonary embolism.
D. correct. reteplase is indicated for AMI when fibrinolytics are indicated.
16.Which of the following is a characteristic of diastolic heart failure?
A. inability of the heart muscle to relax.
