TEST BANK
Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the
Conscientious Prescriber
William N. Tindall, Mona M. Sedrak, and John M. Boltri
1st Edition
,Table of Contents
Chapter 01 Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st Century 1
Chapter 02 An Introduction to Pharmacodynamics and Pharmacokinetics 12
Chapter 03 Communicating With Patients About Medications-A Patient-Centered
Approach 23
Chapter 04 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Bone and Joint Disorders 35
Chapter 05 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Eye and Ear Disorders 44
Chapter 06 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disorders 56
Chapter 07 Drugs Used to Regulate Blood Pressure 69
Chapter 08 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Hyperlipidemias 80
Chapter 09 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Blood Disorders 90
Chapter 10 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Pulmonary Diseases and Disorders 103
Chapter 11 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Common Disorders of the Gastrointestinal
System 113
Chapter 12 Drugs Used To Treat Endocrine Gland Disorders 125
Chapter 13 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus 135
Chapter 14 Drugs Used To Treat Common Neurological Conditions 147
Chapter 15 Practical Pharmacotherapy of Drugs Used To Treat Psychiatric Disorders 158
Chapter 16 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Skin Disorders 170
Chapter 17 Modern Approaches To Managing Bacterial Infections 180
Chapter 18 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Nonbacterial Infections 191
Chapter 19 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Neoplasms 202
Chapter 20 Drugs Used To Affect Women's Health 211
Chapter 21 Drugs Used To Affect Men's Health 221
Chapter 22 Prescribing for the Geriatric Patient 233
Chapter 23 Prescribing for the Pediatric Patient 245
Chapter 24 Drugs Used to Manage Pain 256
Chapter 25 The Integrative Medicine Pharmacopoeia-Herbals, Vitamins, and Dietary
Supplements 266
Chapter 26 Agents Used To Manipulate the Immune Response 273
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
Chapter 1. Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st Century
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which statement regarding herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements is true?
A. Herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are not regulated by the U.S.
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).
B. Manufacturers must prove the safety of their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food
supplements.
C. Manufacturers must prove that their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food
supplements are free from adulteration.
D. Manufacturers must prove the legitimacy of any claims they make about their
herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements.
ANS: A
Federal regulations for dietary supplements are very different from those for prescription
and over-the-counter drugs.
TOP: Regulation of Herbals, Vitamins, Minerals, and Food Supplements
2. Which amendment to the FDCA established the two classes of drugs: legend or prescription
only and over the counter?
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Prescription Drug Amendment)
B. New Drug Application Amendment
C. Health Education and Welfare Amendment
D. Kefauer Harris Amendment
ANS: A
Prior to the passage of this law, drug manufacturers were free to determine the category for
each of their drugs.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
3. The package insert (PI) attached to a prescription drug contains all of the following
information except:
A. U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drug information.
B. Highly detailed adverse effects and dosage information for the prescriber.
C. Information in layman’s terms for the patient.
D. Pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic drug information.
ANS: C
The PI contains information for health professionals; the patient information leaflet provides
information in layman’s terms for the patient.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
4. Which of the following best defines the term adulteration of drugs?
A. Adding contaminants or anything not stated on a drug label
B. Claiming a drug is a cure for a certain condition, such as cancer
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
C. Advertising a drug for a poorly defined condition, such as miasma
D. Claiming a drug is safe when its safety has not been established in preclinical trials
ANS: A
Passed in 1906, the FDCA established the FDA to protect the public from harm from drugs
that had been adulterated and/or mislabeled.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
5. The majority of “off-label” or unapproved usages for drugs are prescribed for which patient
groups?
A. Pediatric patients and patients on chemotherapy
B. Patients with neurologic diseases
C. Obese patients
D. Pregnant patients
ANS: A
Pediatric populations and patients on chemotherapy are the hardest groups to assemble for
clinical trials; therefore, they are commonly prescribed “off-label” uses for medications.
TOP: Off-Label Prescribing
6. The major goals of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) include all of the following except:
A. Improving the manufacturing, distribution, prescribing, and dispensing of
controlled substances by legitimate persons in the health-care sector.
B. Providing research into issues of drug addiction and rehabilitation.
C. Stopping the widespread diversion of controlled substances into illicit or “street”
channels.
D. Establishing laws and criminal sentences for the possession and sale of illicit
controlled substances.
ANS: D
The CSA does not establish criminal sentences for possession and sale of illicit controlled
substances.
TOP: Opioids/Narcotics and Other Dangerous Drugs
7. Which statement is true regarding the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) categories
of scheduled drugs?
A. Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in
the United States.
B. Schedule I drugs have a low potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the
United States.
C. Schedule II drugs have a low potential for abuse.
D. Schedule V drugs have a high potential for abuse.
ANS: A
Schedule I drugs under the CSA for the United States are drugs or other substances that
have a high potential for abuse, have no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the
United States, and lack accepted safety standards for use under medical supervision.
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
TOP: Opioids/Narcotics and Other Dangerous Drugs
8. Which statement regarding extemporaneous compounding is false?
A. Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product
for a specific patient using a physician’s prescription, a drug formula, or a recipe.
B. Calculated amounts of ingredients are measured out and made into a uniform
mixture.
C. Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product
for a patient using his own drug formula rather than a physician’s prescription.
D. Pediatric dosages are commonly compounded when only adult dosages are
available.
ANS: C
With extemporaneous compounding, the pharmacist prepares the drug product using a
physician’s prescription, a drug formula, or a recipe.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
9. Clinical pharmacology is best defined as:
A. The study of the optimum use of medication in patients.
B. The study of the human body’s reaction to a drug over a specified time.
C. The biologic actions of a drug at its site of action.
D. The study of the effects of genetic variations on pharmacologic processes.
ANS: A
Clinical pharmacology is the academic discipline on ethical, effective, safe, and economic
use of drugs.
TOP: Conscientious Prescribing
10. Which statement regarding over-the-counter (OTC) drugs is true?
A. OTC drugs are rarely associated with toxicity or overdose.
B. No OTC drugs are also available in a higher dosage form by prescription.
C. OTC drugs are generally more expensive than prescription drugs.
D. OTC drugs contain directions and information on the label and packaging to allow
consumers to self-medicate.
ANS: D
OTC drugs contain directions and information that allow consumers to self-medicate. In
addition, they can be associated with toxicity and overdose, are usually available in higher
dosages by prescription version, and are not necessarily more expensive than prescription
drugs.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
11. In the early 1960s, the serious birth defects caused by thalidomide prompted which of the
following amendments to the FDCA?
A. Kefauver Harris Drug Efficacy Amendment
B. Dietary Supplement and Health Act
C. Orphan Drug Status Act
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
D. Controlled Substances Act
ANS: A
The Kefauver Harris Drug Efficacy Amendment requires that manufacturers provide proof
of not only a drug’s safety, but also its effectiveness for the purpose stated.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
12. Which medication is an example of a schedule I (C-I) drug?
A. oxycodone
B. mescaline
C. fentanyl
D. Diazepam
ANS: B
Mescaline is a schedule I drug, which means that it has no accepted medical use in the
United States.
TOP: Opioids/Narcotics and Other Dangerous Drugs
13. Which statement regarding schedule II (C-II) controlled substance drugs is true?
A. Heroin is an example of a schedule II drug.
B. Prescribers can write orders that include up to five refills of schedule II
prescription drugs.
C. Cough syrup with codeine is an example of a schedule II drug.
D. Emergency verbal orders for a schedule II drug must be confirmed with a written
prescription within 72 hours.
ANS: D
Emergency verbal orders for a schedule II drug must be confirmed with a written
prescription within 72 hours. Prescribers may not write orders that include refills for
schedule II controlled substance drugs.
TOP: Opioids/Narcotics and Other Dangerous Drugs
14. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the number of preventable
medical errors per year is approximately:
A. 100,000.
B. 25,000.
C. 1 million.
D. 500,000.
ANS: A
The number of preventable medical errors is increasing each year due to the growing
prevalence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and preventable hospital
errors.
TOP: Conscientious Prescribing
15. Adverse drug events:
A. Occur once a day in every hospital in the United States.
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
B. Do not increase health care-related costs.
C. Are less common among Medicare patients.
D. Are not common among residents in a long-term care facility.
ANS: A
Adverse drug events cost nearly $8,750 per event and are common among patients on
Medicare and patients receiving long-term care.
TOP: Medication Errors
16. In 1994, the World Health Organization (WHO) released recommendations for rational
prescribing that included all of the following recommendations except:
A. Use only brand (trade) name drugs.
B. Ensure medication choices are safe and effective for the defined problem.
C. Monitor the results of treatment.
D. Stop the use of a drug when the treatment period is complete.
ANS: A
The WHO recommends that prescribers create a personal formulary of a few effective, safe
medications they frequently use regardless of brand.
TOP: Conscientious Prescribing
17. Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
A. Telephone communication of drug orders decreases the frequency of medication
errors.
B. Mail order medications are less likely to cause issues with medication errors.
C. Lack of patient history information is a common source of medication errors.
D. Patient education regarding medications should be left to the pharmacist to avoid
medication errors.
ANS: C
Telephone and mail order medications can both be sources of medication errors. Patient
education is the responsibility of the prescriber; the patient should fully understand how and
why he or she is taking a medication.
TOP: Medication Errors
18. Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
A. They are most commonly the result of a single event.
B. They are most commonly the result of multiple events.
C. They are usually caused by a single careless person.
D. A faulty system will not contribute to medication errors.
ANS: B
Most medication errors result from multiple events, which compound themselves, rather
than a single act by a careless person. They are usually a function of a faulty system, not
faulty people.
TOP: Medication Errors
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
19. The “Signa,” or signatura, component of a written prescription includes:
A. Patient data, such as age, name, and gender.
B. Prescriber data, such as name, practice location and phone number, and
professional degree.
C. Instructions the prescriber has given to the patient, which will appear on
medication label.
D. Brand or generic name and strength of medication.
ANS: C
The Signa, or signatura, tells the pharmacist what words to “sign” on the prescription label
as directions for use.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
20. Which of the following examples could be the inscription component on a prescription?
A. John Smith, RPA-C, License number
B. Dispense # 20
C. Cefuroxime 500 mg
D. Take one tablet PO twice daily for 10 days
ANS: C
The inscription includes the brand or generic drug name and its strength.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
21. Which of the following examples could be the subscription component on a prescription?
A. Dispense # 100 ml
B. John Smith, RPA-C, License number
C. Patient name and address
D. Take 5 ml PO twice daily for 10 days
ANS: A
The subscription includes the quantity of the drug to be dispensed.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
22. A prescriber wants a patient to receive the Dilantin brand and does not wish to substitute
with the generic, phenytoin. Which of the following statements is false regarding generic
and brand substitution?
A. The Drug Substitution Law allows a pharmacist to substitute a generic
bioequivalent drug for one stated on a prescription.
B. A prescriber can write “DAW,” meaning “dispense as written,” to ensure that a
patient receives the brand name drug.
C. The FDA regulates and reports on bioequivalence testing for generic drugs.
D. All brand drugs can be switched to generic without biologically significant
fluctuations.
ANS: D
For certain drugs, bioequivalence studies indicate that once a patient has started on a brand
name drug, biologically significant fluctuations can be observed when brands are switched
or substituted.
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
23. Which abbreviation indicates that a patient should take their medication at bedtime?
A. HS
B. BID
C. AC
D. PRN
ANS: A
HS stands for hora somni, which is Latin for “at bedtime.”
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
24. A patient is instructed to apply one drop to each eye. Which abbreviation for these
instructions is accurate?
A. One gtt ou
B. One gr ad
C. One gtt au
D. One gtt od
ANS: A
OU stands for oculus uterque, which is Latin for “each eye.” OD stands for “right eye,” and
OS stands for “left eye.”
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
25. Which abbreviation indicates that a medication should be taken by mouth twice daily?
A. po BID
B. po ac
C. po qd
D. po TIW
ANS: A
BID stands for bis in die, which is Latin for “twice a day.”
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
26. Which abbreviation indicates that three drops should be placed in both ears?
A. Three gtt as
B. Three gtt ad
C. Three gtt au
D. Three gtt od
ANS: C
AU stands for auris utraque, which is Latin for “both ears.” AD stands for “right ear,” and
AS stands for “left ear.”
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
27. Which of the following statements is false regarding prescriptions?
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
A. Prescriptions for schedule II controlled substances may be refilled.
B. Medications are dispensed in childproof containers unless otherwise noted.
C. The date of the prescription is required on all prescriptions.
D. The prescriber's DEA number should be included when necessary.
ANS: A
Prescriptions for schedule II controlled substances may not be refilled.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
28. Pregnancy safety category C is best described by:
A. Adequate and well-controlled studies have indicated no risk to a fetus in the first
trimester of pregnancy and have produced no evidence of risk in later trimesters.
B. Animal studies have indicated no risk to a fetus; however, no well-controlled
studies in pregnant women have been conducted.
C. Animal studies have indicated adverse effects on a fetus; however, no
well-controlled studies in humans have been conducted.
D. Positive human fetal risk has been reported in investigational or marketing
experience or human studies.
ANS: C
In pregnancy safety category C, animal reproduction studies have reported adverse effects
on a fetus; however, there are no well-controlled studies in humans. Potential benefits may
indicate the use of the medication despite potential risks.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
29. Which pregnancy category indicates that the risks of using a drug outweigh the benefits and,
therefore, that drugs in this category should not be used by pregnant women?
A. Category A
B. Category C
C. Category X
D. Category D
ANS: B
Pregnancy safety category C drugs should not be used in pregnant women because studies
have shown that these drugs produce fetal abnormalities or show positive evidence of fetal
risk in humans.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
30. Principles of conscientious prescribing include all of the following except:
A. Consideration of the cost of medications and drug formularies.
B. Consideration of the patient’s ability to adhere to the prescribed medication
regimen.
C. Consideration of comorbidities and polypharmacy.
D. Preference for brand name drugs for all prescribed medications.
ANS: D
Although brand name drugs are sometimes indicated, a prescriber should consider the cost
of the brand name drug versus the cost of an equivalent generic drug.
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Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the
Conscientious Prescriber
William N. Tindall, Mona M. Sedrak, and John M. Boltri
1st Edition
,Table of Contents
Chapter 01 Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st Century 1
Chapter 02 An Introduction to Pharmacodynamics and Pharmacokinetics 12
Chapter 03 Communicating With Patients About Medications-A Patient-Centered
Approach 23
Chapter 04 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Bone and Joint Disorders 35
Chapter 05 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Eye and Ear Disorders 44
Chapter 06 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disorders 56
Chapter 07 Drugs Used to Regulate Blood Pressure 69
Chapter 08 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Hyperlipidemias 80
Chapter 09 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Blood Disorders 90
Chapter 10 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Pulmonary Diseases and Disorders 103
Chapter 11 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Common Disorders of the Gastrointestinal
System 113
Chapter 12 Drugs Used To Treat Endocrine Gland Disorders 125
Chapter 13 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus 135
Chapter 14 Drugs Used To Treat Common Neurological Conditions 147
Chapter 15 Practical Pharmacotherapy of Drugs Used To Treat Psychiatric Disorders 158
Chapter 16 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Skin Disorders 170
Chapter 17 Modern Approaches To Managing Bacterial Infections 180
Chapter 18 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Nonbacterial Infections 191
Chapter 19 Drugs Used in the Treatment of Neoplasms 202
Chapter 20 Drugs Used To Affect Women's Health 211
Chapter 21 Drugs Used To Affect Men's Health 221
Chapter 22 Prescribing for the Geriatric Patient 233
Chapter 23 Prescribing for the Pediatric Patient 245
Chapter 24 Drugs Used to Manage Pain 256
Chapter 25 The Integrative Medicine Pharmacopoeia-Herbals, Vitamins, and Dietary
Supplements 266
Chapter 26 Agents Used To Manipulate the Immune Response 273
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
Chapter 1. Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st Century
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which statement regarding herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements is true?
A. Herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are not regulated by the U.S.
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).
B. Manufacturers must prove the safety of their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food
supplements.
C. Manufacturers must prove that their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food
supplements are free from adulteration.
D. Manufacturers must prove the legitimacy of any claims they make about their
herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements.
ANS: A
Federal regulations for dietary supplements are very different from those for prescription
and over-the-counter drugs.
TOP: Regulation of Herbals, Vitamins, Minerals, and Food Supplements
2. Which amendment to the FDCA established the two classes of drugs: legend or prescription
only and over the counter?
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Prescription Drug Amendment)
B. New Drug Application Amendment
C. Health Education and Welfare Amendment
D. Kefauer Harris Amendment
ANS: A
Prior to the passage of this law, drug manufacturers were free to determine the category for
each of their drugs.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
3. The package insert (PI) attached to a prescription drug contains all of the following
information except:
A. U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drug information.
B. Highly detailed adverse effects and dosage information for the prescriber.
C. Information in layman’s terms for the patient.
D. Pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic drug information.
ANS: C
The PI contains information for health professionals; the patient information leaflet provides
information in layman’s terms for the patient.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
4. Which of the following best defines the term adulteration of drugs?
A. Adding contaminants or anything not stated on a drug label
B. Claiming a drug is a cure for a certain condition, such as cancer
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
C. Advertising a drug for a poorly defined condition, such as miasma
D. Claiming a drug is safe when its safety has not been established in preclinical trials
ANS: A
Passed in 1906, the FDCA established the FDA to protect the public from harm from drugs
that had been adulterated and/or mislabeled.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
5. The majority of “off-label” or unapproved usages for drugs are prescribed for which patient
groups?
A. Pediatric patients and patients on chemotherapy
B. Patients with neurologic diseases
C. Obese patients
D. Pregnant patients
ANS: A
Pediatric populations and patients on chemotherapy are the hardest groups to assemble for
clinical trials; therefore, they are commonly prescribed “off-label” uses for medications.
TOP: Off-Label Prescribing
6. The major goals of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) include all of the following except:
A. Improving the manufacturing, distribution, prescribing, and dispensing of
controlled substances by legitimate persons in the health-care sector.
B. Providing research into issues of drug addiction and rehabilitation.
C. Stopping the widespread diversion of controlled substances into illicit or “street”
channels.
D. Establishing laws and criminal sentences for the possession and sale of illicit
controlled substances.
ANS: D
The CSA does not establish criminal sentences for possession and sale of illicit controlled
substances.
TOP: Opioids/Narcotics and Other Dangerous Drugs
7. Which statement is true regarding the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) categories
of scheduled drugs?
A. Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in
the United States.
B. Schedule I drugs have a low potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the
United States.
C. Schedule II drugs have a low potential for abuse.
D. Schedule V drugs have a high potential for abuse.
ANS: A
Schedule I drugs under the CSA for the United States are drugs or other substances that
have a high potential for abuse, have no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the
United States, and lack accepted safety standards for use under medical supervision.
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
TOP: Opioids/Narcotics and Other Dangerous Drugs
8. Which statement regarding extemporaneous compounding is false?
A. Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product
for a specific patient using a physician’s prescription, a drug formula, or a recipe.
B. Calculated amounts of ingredients are measured out and made into a uniform
mixture.
C. Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product
for a patient using his own drug formula rather than a physician’s prescription.
D. Pediatric dosages are commonly compounded when only adult dosages are
available.
ANS: C
With extemporaneous compounding, the pharmacist prepares the drug product using a
physician’s prescription, a drug formula, or a recipe.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
9. Clinical pharmacology is best defined as:
A. The study of the optimum use of medication in patients.
B. The study of the human body’s reaction to a drug over a specified time.
C. The biologic actions of a drug at its site of action.
D. The study of the effects of genetic variations on pharmacologic processes.
ANS: A
Clinical pharmacology is the academic discipline on ethical, effective, safe, and economic
use of drugs.
TOP: Conscientious Prescribing
10. Which statement regarding over-the-counter (OTC) drugs is true?
A. OTC drugs are rarely associated with toxicity or overdose.
B. No OTC drugs are also available in a higher dosage form by prescription.
C. OTC drugs are generally more expensive than prescription drugs.
D. OTC drugs contain directions and information on the label and packaging to allow
consumers to self-medicate.
ANS: D
OTC drugs contain directions and information that allow consumers to self-medicate. In
addition, they can be associated with toxicity and overdose, are usually available in higher
dosages by prescription version, and are not necessarily more expensive than prescription
drugs.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
11. In the early 1960s, the serious birth defects caused by thalidomide prompted which of the
following amendments to the FDCA?
A. Kefauver Harris Drug Efficacy Amendment
B. Dietary Supplement and Health Act
C. Orphan Drug Status Act
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D. Controlled Substances Act
ANS: A
The Kefauver Harris Drug Efficacy Amendment requires that manufacturers provide proof
of not only a drug’s safety, but also its effectiveness for the purpose stated.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
12. Which medication is an example of a schedule I (C-I) drug?
A. oxycodone
B. mescaline
C. fentanyl
D. Diazepam
ANS: B
Mescaline is a schedule I drug, which means that it has no accepted medical use in the
United States.
TOP: Opioids/Narcotics and Other Dangerous Drugs
13. Which statement regarding schedule II (C-II) controlled substance drugs is true?
A. Heroin is an example of a schedule II drug.
B. Prescribers can write orders that include up to five refills of schedule II
prescription drugs.
C. Cough syrup with codeine is an example of a schedule II drug.
D. Emergency verbal orders for a schedule II drug must be confirmed with a written
prescription within 72 hours.
ANS: D
Emergency verbal orders for a schedule II drug must be confirmed with a written
prescription within 72 hours. Prescribers may not write orders that include refills for
schedule II controlled substance drugs.
TOP: Opioids/Narcotics and Other Dangerous Drugs
14. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the number of preventable
medical errors per year is approximately:
A. 100,000.
B. 25,000.
C. 1 million.
D. 500,000.
ANS: A
The number of preventable medical errors is increasing each year due to the growing
prevalence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and preventable hospital
errors.
TOP: Conscientious Prescribing
15. Adverse drug events:
A. Occur once a day in every hospital in the United States.
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
B. Do not increase health care-related costs.
C. Are less common among Medicare patients.
D. Are not common among residents in a long-term care facility.
ANS: A
Adverse drug events cost nearly $8,750 per event and are common among patients on
Medicare and patients receiving long-term care.
TOP: Medication Errors
16. In 1994, the World Health Organization (WHO) released recommendations for rational
prescribing that included all of the following recommendations except:
A. Use only brand (trade) name drugs.
B. Ensure medication choices are safe and effective for the defined problem.
C. Monitor the results of treatment.
D. Stop the use of a drug when the treatment period is complete.
ANS: A
The WHO recommends that prescribers create a personal formulary of a few effective, safe
medications they frequently use regardless of brand.
TOP: Conscientious Prescribing
17. Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
A. Telephone communication of drug orders decreases the frequency of medication
errors.
B. Mail order medications are less likely to cause issues with medication errors.
C. Lack of patient history information is a common source of medication errors.
D. Patient education regarding medications should be left to the pharmacist to avoid
medication errors.
ANS: C
Telephone and mail order medications can both be sources of medication errors. Patient
education is the responsibility of the prescriber; the patient should fully understand how and
why he or she is taking a medication.
TOP: Medication Errors
18. Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
A. They are most commonly the result of a single event.
B. They are most commonly the result of multiple events.
C. They are usually caused by a single careless person.
D. A faulty system will not contribute to medication errors.
ANS: B
Most medication errors result from multiple events, which compound themselves, rather
than a single act by a careless person. They are usually a function of a faulty system, not
faulty people.
TOP: Medication Errors
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
19. The “Signa,” or signatura, component of a written prescription includes:
A. Patient data, such as age, name, and gender.
B. Prescriber data, such as name, practice location and phone number, and
professional degree.
C. Instructions the prescriber has given to the patient, which will appear on
medication label.
D. Brand or generic name and strength of medication.
ANS: C
The Signa, or signatura, tells the pharmacist what words to “sign” on the prescription label
as directions for use.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
20. Which of the following examples could be the inscription component on a prescription?
A. John Smith, RPA-C, License number
B. Dispense # 20
C. Cefuroxime 500 mg
D. Take one tablet PO twice daily for 10 days
ANS: C
The inscription includes the brand or generic drug name and its strength.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
21. Which of the following examples could be the subscription component on a prescription?
A. Dispense # 100 ml
B. John Smith, RPA-C, License number
C. Patient name and address
D. Take 5 ml PO twice daily for 10 days
ANS: A
The subscription includes the quantity of the drug to be dispensed.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
22. A prescriber wants a patient to receive the Dilantin brand and does not wish to substitute
with the generic, phenytoin. Which of the following statements is false regarding generic
and brand substitution?
A. The Drug Substitution Law allows a pharmacist to substitute a generic
bioequivalent drug for one stated on a prescription.
B. A prescriber can write “DAW,” meaning “dispense as written,” to ensure that a
patient receives the brand name drug.
C. The FDA regulates and reports on bioequivalence testing for generic drugs.
D. All brand drugs can be switched to generic without biologically significant
fluctuations.
ANS: D
For certain drugs, bioequivalence studies indicate that once a patient has started on a brand
name drug, biologically significant fluctuations can be observed when brands are switched
or substituted.
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
23. Which abbreviation indicates that a patient should take their medication at bedtime?
A. HS
B. BID
C. AC
D. PRN
ANS: A
HS stands for hora somni, which is Latin for “at bedtime.”
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
24. A patient is instructed to apply one drop to each eye. Which abbreviation for these
instructions is accurate?
A. One gtt ou
B. One gr ad
C. One gtt au
D. One gtt od
ANS: A
OU stands for oculus uterque, which is Latin for “each eye.” OD stands for “right eye,” and
OS stands for “left eye.”
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
25. Which abbreviation indicates that a medication should be taken by mouth twice daily?
A. po BID
B. po ac
C. po qd
D. po TIW
ANS: A
BID stands for bis in die, which is Latin for “twice a day.”
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
26. Which abbreviation indicates that three drops should be placed in both ears?
A. Three gtt as
B. Three gtt ad
C. Three gtt au
D. Three gtt od
ANS: C
AU stands for auris utraque, which is Latin for “both ears.” AD stands for “right ear,” and
AS stands for “left ear.”
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
27. Which of the following statements is false regarding prescriptions?
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Test Bank - Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber, 1st Edition (Tindall, 2014)
A. Prescriptions for schedule II controlled substances may be refilled.
B. Medications are dispensed in childproof containers unless otherwise noted.
C. The date of the prescription is required on all prescriptions.
D. The prescriber's DEA number should be included when necessary.
ANS: A
Prescriptions for schedule II controlled substances may not be refilled.
TOP: Writing Prescriptions to Avoid Errors
28. Pregnancy safety category C is best described by:
A. Adequate and well-controlled studies have indicated no risk to a fetus in the first
trimester of pregnancy and have produced no evidence of risk in later trimesters.
B. Animal studies have indicated no risk to a fetus; however, no well-controlled
studies in pregnant women have been conducted.
C. Animal studies have indicated adverse effects on a fetus; however, no
well-controlled studies in humans have been conducted.
D. Positive human fetal risk has been reported in investigational or marketing
experience or human studies.
ANS: C
In pregnancy safety category C, animal reproduction studies have reported adverse effects
on a fetus; however, there are no well-controlled studies in humans. Potential benefits may
indicate the use of the medication despite potential risks.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
29. Which pregnancy category indicates that the risks of using a drug outweigh the benefits and,
therefore, that drugs in this category should not be used by pregnant women?
A. Category A
B. Category C
C. Category X
D. Category D
ANS: B
Pregnancy safety category C drugs should not be used in pregnant women because studies
have shown that these drugs produce fetal abnormalities or show positive evidence of fetal
risk in humans.
TOP: Federal Drug Regulations
30. Principles of conscientious prescribing include all of the following except:
A. Consideration of the cost of medications and drug formularies.
B. Consideration of the patient’s ability to adhere to the prescribed medication
regimen.
C. Consideration of comorbidities and polypharmacy.
D. Preference for brand name drugs for all prescribed medications.
ANS: D
Although brand name drugs are sometimes indicated, a prescriber should consider the cost
of the brand name drug versus the cost of an equivalent generic drug.
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