NUR 201 MED SURG FINAL TEST EXAM NEWEST 2026
STUDY QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
GUARANTEED PASS | RATED A+
A patient who experienced a spinal cord injury to the level t% rings the call bell for assistance.
The nurse finds the patient with a flushed head and neck, complaining of headache, and
diaphoretic. The pulse is 47 and BP is 220/114. The nurse concludes that immediate treatment is
needed for: - Answer>>> autonomic dysreflexia
A nurse is taking care of a patient who is tentatively diagnosed with Gullian-Barre syndrome
(GBS) due to progressive paralysis of the lower extremities. Which of the following patient
reports is relevant to the diagnosis of GBS? - Answer>>> history of upper respiratory infection
What are the typical abnormal findings observed to suspect endocrine disorders, during an
endocrine assessment? - Answer>>> excessive facial hair on a woman, hyper pigmented
coloration in lower legs
The patient is admitted to the hospital with a urological problem has an order for IVP
(intravenous pyelogram). The nurse should assess which lab test? - Answer>>> BUN and
creatinine levels
A client develops a renal disorder after taking in an antibiotic that has nephrotoxicity as an
adverse effect. The nurse adds to the client's medical record a standardized care plan for which of
the following disorders? - Answer>>> Acute renal failure
A patient with hyperthyroidism is treated with Iodine. Before the patient is discharged, the nurse
instructs the patient that: - Answer>>> symptoms of hypothyroidism may occur as the Iodine
therapy takes effect
EKG changes associated with hyperkalemia are: - Answer>>> increased heart rate, widened
QRS, tall T waves
A female patient is being given iodine treatment for Grave's disease. What should the nurse teach
before giving the client her first dose? - Answer>>> Instruct the patient that she must not get
pregnant during treatment
,The most appropriate snack for the RN to offer the pt with chronic renal failure is: - Answer>>>
hard candy (high carb, low protein)
A nurse is assessing a client 24 hours following a cholecystectomy. The nurse notes that the T
tube has drained 700 ml of greenish brown drainage. Which nursing intervention is most
appropriate? - Answer>>> document the finding
Nursing management of the patient with acute pancreatitis includes: - Answer>>> check for
signs of hypocalemia and monitor for infection, particularly a respiratory infection
The nurse explains to the patient with acute pancreatitis that the most common pathogenic
mechanism of the disorder is - Answer>>> auto digestion of the pancreas
When assessing the neurologic status of a patient with hepatic encephalopathy, you should ask
the patient to: - Answer>>> extend both arms
Leading causes of ESRD - Answer>>> diabetes and Hypertension
A client is being evaluated for brain death. Which findings are positive indicators of brain death?
- Answer>>> pupils are nonreactive & dilated
absence of deep tendon reflexes
dolls eyes absent
Which of the following is a side effect of dilantin? - Answer>>> hyperplasia of the gums (give
frequent mouth care)
Why would folic acid be prescribed for a person taking dilantin? - Answer>>> its absorption
from foods is inhibited by dilantin
the earliest sign of IICP is: - Answer>>> decreased LOC
Cushing's triad includes: - Answer>>> Increased BP, Widened pulse pressure, decreased Resp,
decreased HR
What is the effect of mild hyperventilation in a pt with IICP? - Answer>>> cerebral arterial
vasoconstriction
, A client is at risk for IICP, which of the following would be the priority for the nurse to monitor
- Answer>>> Unequal pupil size
What is the priority intervention for a pt with an intraventricular catheter? - Answer>>> aseptic
technique to prevent infection
What is the effect of giving the osmotic diuretic, mannitol? - Answer>>> decreased cerebral
edema
The nurse administers mannitol to the client with IICP. Which parameter requires close
monitoring? - Answer>>> Intake and output
The client has a sustained IICP of 20 which client position would be most appropriate -
Answer>>> HOB elevated 30-45 degrees
Which activity should the nurse encourage the client to avoid when there is a risk for IICP -
Answer>>> coughing
Why might a person with IICP be given barbiturates - Answer>>> to decrease cerebral
metabolism
What is the earliest and most reliable indicator of IICP - Answer>>> changes in LOC, HA,
widening pulse pressure
Which cranial nerves control eye movements - Answer>>> III (oculomotor - moves eyes in all
directions except down, in, and outward)
IV (trochlear - moves eyes down and in)
VI (abducens - lateral eye movement - outward)
Which area of the brain is responsible for expressive speech - Answer>>> frontal lobe
which area is responsible for receptive speech - Answer>>> temporal lobe
What is the highest possible Glasgow Coma Scale - Answer>>> 15
What is the lowest possible GCS - Answer>>> 3
What does it tell when a patient's GCS is 8 or less - Answer>>> indicates coma
STUDY QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
GUARANTEED PASS | RATED A+
A patient who experienced a spinal cord injury to the level t% rings the call bell for assistance.
The nurse finds the patient with a flushed head and neck, complaining of headache, and
diaphoretic. The pulse is 47 and BP is 220/114. The nurse concludes that immediate treatment is
needed for: - Answer>>> autonomic dysreflexia
A nurse is taking care of a patient who is tentatively diagnosed with Gullian-Barre syndrome
(GBS) due to progressive paralysis of the lower extremities. Which of the following patient
reports is relevant to the diagnosis of GBS? - Answer>>> history of upper respiratory infection
What are the typical abnormal findings observed to suspect endocrine disorders, during an
endocrine assessment? - Answer>>> excessive facial hair on a woman, hyper pigmented
coloration in lower legs
The patient is admitted to the hospital with a urological problem has an order for IVP
(intravenous pyelogram). The nurse should assess which lab test? - Answer>>> BUN and
creatinine levels
A client develops a renal disorder after taking in an antibiotic that has nephrotoxicity as an
adverse effect. The nurse adds to the client's medical record a standardized care plan for which of
the following disorders? - Answer>>> Acute renal failure
A patient with hyperthyroidism is treated with Iodine. Before the patient is discharged, the nurse
instructs the patient that: - Answer>>> symptoms of hypothyroidism may occur as the Iodine
therapy takes effect
EKG changes associated with hyperkalemia are: - Answer>>> increased heart rate, widened
QRS, tall T waves
A female patient is being given iodine treatment for Grave's disease. What should the nurse teach
before giving the client her first dose? - Answer>>> Instruct the patient that she must not get
pregnant during treatment
,The most appropriate snack for the RN to offer the pt with chronic renal failure is: - Answer>>>
hard candy (high carb, low protein)
A nurse is assessing a client 24 hours following a cholecystectomy. The nurse notes that the T
tube has drained 700 ml of greenish brown drainage. Which nursing intervention is most
appropriate? - Answer>>> document the finding
Nursing management of the patient with acute pancreatitis includes: - Answer>>> check for
signs of hypocalemia and monitor for infection, particularly a respiratory infection
The nurse explains to the patient with acute pancreatitis that the most common pathogenic
mechanism of the disorder is - Answer>>> auto digestion of the pancreas
When assessing the neurologic status of a patient with hepatic encephalopathy, you should ask
the patient to: - Answer>>> extend both arms
Leading causes of ESRD - Answer>>> diabetes and Hypertension
A client is being evaluated for brain death. Which findings are positive indicators of brain death?
- Answer>>> pupils are nonreactive & dilated
absence of deep tendon reflexes
dolls eyes absent
Which of the following is a side effect of dilantin? - Answer>>> hyperplasia of the gums (give
frequent mouth care)
Why would folic acid be prescribed for a person taking dilantin? - Answer>>> its absorption
from foods is inhibited by dilantin
the earliest sign of IICP is: - Answer>>> decreased LOC
Cushing's triad includes: - Answer>>> Increased BP, Widened pulse pressure, decreased Resp,
decreased HR
What is the effect of mild hyperventilation in a pt with IICP? - Answer>>> cerebral arterial
vasoconstriction
, A client is at risk for IICP, which of the following would be the priority for the nurse to monitor
- Answer>>> Unequal pupil size
What is the priority intervention for a pt with an intraventricular catheter? - Answer>>> aseptic
technique to prevent infection
What is the effect of giving the osmotic diuretic, mannitol? - Answer>>> decreased cerebral
edema
The nurse administers mannitol to the client with IICP. Which parameter requires close
monitoring? - Answer>>> Intake and output
The client has a sustained IICP of 20 which client position would be most appropriate -
Answer>>> HOB elevated 30-45 degrees
Which activity should the nurse encourage the client to avoid when there is a risk for IICP -
Answer>>> coughing
Why might a person with IICP be given barbiturates - Answer>>> to decrease cerebral
metabolism
What is the earliest and most reliable indicator of IICP - Answer>>> changes in LOC, HA,
widening pulse pressure
Which cranial nerves control eye movements - Answer>>> III (oculomotor - moves eyes in all
directions except down, in, and outward)
IV (trochlear - moves eyes down and in)
VI (abducens - lateral eye movement - outward)
Which area of the brain is responsible for expressive speech - Answer>>> frontal lobe
which area is responsible for receptive speech - Answer>>> temporal lobe
What is the highest possible Glasgow Coma Scale - Answer>>> 15
What is the lowest possible GCS - Answer>>> 3
What does it tell when a patient's GCS is 8 or less - Answer>>> indicates coma
