ESTUDYR
HBHB EXAM 2 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
2025 MULTICHOICE ANSWERED EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
1. What is the appropriate precautions for Clostridioides difficile (C-diff)?
A. Airborne (N95, negative pressure)
B. Contact — gown and gloves
C. Droplet — surgical mask only
D. Standard precautions only
Rationale: C-diff transmits via contact with spores; gown and gloves plus dedicated equipment are
required.
2. What is the correct precautions for active tuberculosis (TB)?
A. Airborne — N95 respirator and negative-pressure room
B. Contact — gown and gloves
C. Droplet — surgical mask
D. Standard precautions only
Rationale: TB spreads via airborne droplet nuclei; airborne isolation is required.
3. Which precautions are appropriate for measles?
A. Contact only
B. Droplet only
C. Airborne — N95 and negative pressure
D. Standard precautions
Rationale: Measles is highly contagious via airborne spread; airborne precautions required.
4. Herpes zoster (shingles) in a disseminated case requires which precautions?
A. Contact only
B. Droplet only
C. Airborne plus contact — N95, negative pressure, gown & gloves
D. Standard precautions only
Rationale: Disseminated zoster can be airborne and contact — combine precautions.
,ESTUDYR
5. Which of the following is the correct precaution for scabies?
A. Airborne
B. Contact — gown and gloves
C. Droplet
D. No special precautions
Rationale: Scabies spreads by direct and prolonged skin contact; contact precautions needed.
6. Which teaching is appropriate for MRSA carriage/infection?
A. Share towels if washed later
B. Keep wounds covered, practice hand hygiene, no sharing personal items, wash linens hot
C. Avoid all antibiotic use indefinitely
D. Disinfect only when infected
Rationale: Preventing spread requires wound coverage, hygiene, and environmental cleaning.
7. Standard first-line topical treatments for mild acne vulgaris include:
A. Oral isotretinoin only
B. Benzoyl peroxide, salicylic acid, topical retinoids
C. Systemic antibiotics only
D. Corticosteroid creams
Rationale: Topical benzoyl peroxide, salicylic acid and retinoids target comedones/inflammation.
8. Key patient teaching for isotretinoin (oral retinoid) includes:
A. No monitoring needed
B. Two forms of contraception, baseline/periodic liver tests, monitor lipid panel
C. It’s safe in pregnancy
D. Stop moisturizer use entirely
Rationale: Isotretinoin is teratogenic and hepatotoxic; strict pregnancy prevention and labs required.
9. Most appropriate treatment for pediculosis (lice) is:
A. Oral antibiotics
B. Steroid cream
C. Topical permethrin or pyrethrin shampoo, fine-tooth combing, wash linens hot
D. UV light therapy
Rationale: Topical pediculicides plus mechanical removal and laundering are standard.
, ESTUDYR
10. What is the major risk of prolonged or excessive topical corticosteroid use?
A. Increased hair growth only
B. Skin thinning (atrophy), bruising, and striae
C. Systemic hypertension in all cases
D. Permanent pigmentation in all users
Rationale: Chronic topical steroid overuse commonly causes cutaneous atrophy and fragility.
11. Which statement about antibiotics is correct?
A. Stop as soon as you feel better always
B. Complete prescribed course to reduce resistance; watch for GI upset and candidiasis
C. Antibiotics treat viruses effectively
D. Antibiotics always have no side effects
Rationale: Incomplete courses promote resistance; adverse effects include GI and yeast infections.
12. Atopic dermatitis (eczema) teaching should include:
A. Use harsh soaps daily
B. Frequent moisturization, cotton clothing, humidifier, avoid triggers
C. Sun exposure as first-line therapy
D. Stop all emollients once improved
Rationale: Emollients and trigger avoidance reduce flares; harsh soaps worsen dryness.
13. Classic features of psoriasis include:
A. Vesicular unilateral rash only
B. Silvery plaques on extensor surfaces and possible psoriatic arthritis
C. Flaccid bullae and mucosal involvement primarily
D. Target lesions after infection
Rationale: Psoriasis is autoimmune with silvery scaly plaques and joint involvement risk.
14. Stage II pressure injury is characterized by:
A. Non-blanching erythema only
B. Partial-thickness skin loss: blister or shallow open sore
C. Full thickness with exposed bone
D. Deep tunneling to muscle
Rationale: Stage II involves partial thickness loss of dermis; stage IV exposes bone.
HBHB EXAM 2 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
2025 MULTICHOICE ANSWERED EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
1. What is the appropriate precautions for Clostridioides difficile (C-diff)?
A. Airborne (N95, negative pressure)
B. Contact — gown and gloves
C. Droplet — surgical mask only
D. Standard precautions only
Rationale: C-diff transmits via contact with spores; gown and gloves plus dedicated equipment are
required.
2. What is the correct precautions for active tuberculosis (TB)?
A. Airborne — N95 respirator and negative-pressure room
B. Contact — gown and gloves
C. Droplet — surgical mask
D. Standard precautions only
Rationale: TB spreads via airborne droplet nuclei; airborne isolation is required.
3. Which precautions are appropriate for measles?
A. Contact only
B. Droplet only
C. Airborne — N95 and negative pressure
D. Standard precautions
Rationale: Measles is highly contagious via airborne spread; airborne precautions required.
4. Herpes zoster (shingles) in a disseminated case requires which precautions?
A. Contact only
B. Droplet only
C. Airborne plus contact — N95, negative pressure, gown & gloves
D. Standard precautions only
Rationale: Disseminated zoster can be airborne and contact — combine precautions.
,ESTUDYR
5. Which of the following is the correct precaution for scabies?
A. Airborne
B. Contact — gown and gloves
C. Droplet
D. No special precautions
Rationale: Scabies spreads by direct and prolonged skin contact; contact precautions needed.
6. Which teaching is appropriate for MRSA carriage/infection?
A. Share towels if washed later
B. Keep wounds covered, practice hand hygiene, no sharing personal items, wash linens hot
C. Avoid all antibiotic use indefinitely
D. Disinfect only when infected
Rationale: Preventing spread requires wound coverage, hygiene, and environmental cleaning.
7. Standard first-line topical treatments for mild acne vulgaris include:
A. Oral isotretinoin only
B. Benzoyl peroxide, salicylic acid, topical retinoids
C. Systemic antibiotics only
D. Corticosteroid creams
Rationale: Topical benzoyl peroxide, salicylic acid and retinoids target comedones/inflammation.
8. Key patient teaching for isotretinoin (oral retinoid) includes:
A. No monitoring needed
B. Two forms of contraception, baseline/periodic liver tests, monitor lipid panel
C. It’s safe in pregnancy
D. Stop moisturizer use entirely
Rationale: Isotretinoin is teratogenic and hepatotoxic; strict pregnancy prevention and labs required.
9. Most appropriate treatment for pediculosis (lice) is:
A. Oral antibiotics
B. Steroid cream
C. Topical permethrin or pyrethrin shampoo, fine-tooth combing, wash linens hot
D. UV light therapy
Rationale: Topical pediculicides plus mechanical removal and laundering are standard.
, ESTUDYR
10. What is the major risk of prolonged or excessive topical corticosteroid use?
A. Increased hair growth only
B. Skin thinning (atrophy), bruising, and striae
C. Systemic hypertension in all cases
D. Permanent pigmentation in all users
Rationale: Chronic topical steroid overuse commonly causes cutaneous atrophy and fragility.
11. Which statement about antibiotics is correct?
A. Stop as soon as you feel better always
B. Complete prescribed course to reduce resistance; watch for GI upset and candidiasis
C. Antibiotics treat viruses effectively
D. Antibiotics always have no side effects
Rationale: Incomplete courses promote resistance; adverse effects include GI and yeast infections.
12. Atopic dermatitis (eczema) teaching should include:
A. Use harsh soaps daily
B. Frequent moisturization, cotton clothing, humidifier, avoid triggers
C. Sun exposure as first-line therapy
D. Stop all emollients once improved
Rationale: Emollients and trigger avoidance reduce flares; harsh soaps worsen dryness.
13. Classic features of psoriasis include:
A. Vesicular unilateral rash only
B. Silvery plaques on extensor surfaces and possible psoriatic arthritis
C. Flaccid bullae and mucosal involvement primarily
D. Target lesions after infection
Rationale: Psoriasis is autoimmune with silvery scaly plaques and joint involvement risk.
14. Stage II pressure injury is characterized by:
A. Non-blanching erythema only
B. Partial-thickness skin loss: blister or shallow open sore
C. Full thickness with exposed bone
D. Deep tunneling to muscle
Rationale: Stage II involves partial thickness loss of dermis; stage IV exposes bone.
