ESTUDYR
NURS 1010 QUIZ 4 (WEEKS 4 + 5) WITHOUT REVIEW PAPER
|EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 100%
CORRECT
Which of the following is part of the physical appearance component of the general survey?
A. Muscle strength
B. Gait symmetry
C. Skin color, facial features, level of consciousness
D. Deep tendon reflexes
Rationale: Physical appearance focuses on visible features such as age appearance, skin color, facial
features, and LOC.
A patient who avoids eye contact, appears tearful, and gives short responses most likely requires:
A. Immediate discharge
B. Reassessment of mood and screening for depression/suicidality
C. No follow-up needed
D. Only pain assessment
Rationale: Those behaviors suggest mood disturbance and need further psychosocial assessment.
BMI is a practical clinical tool primarily used to:
A. Diagnose infection
B. Screen for undernutrition and obesity; helps assess protein-calorie malnutrition
C. Measure bone density
D. Assess liver function
Rationale: BMI estimates body mass and can indicate under- or over-nutrition.
Which type of reasoning is used first in diagnostic thinking when data are incomplete?
A. Inductive
B. Deductive
C. Abductive
D. Analogical
Rationale: Abductive reasoning generates the most likely hypothesis from incomplete cues.
An example of a second-level priority problem is:
A. Cardiac arrest
B. Stable patient with low urine output
C. Routine health teaching
D. Discharge planning only
Rationale: Second-level problems are not immediately life-threatening but require prompt attention to
prevent deterioration.
,ESTUDYR
Which of these is a first-level priority patient scenario?
A. Low urine output in otherwise stable patient
B. Mild anxiety
C. 48-year-old with chest pain
D. Routine medication refill
Rationale: First-level problems are emergent (airway, breathing, circulation) — chest pain may indicate
MI.
Essential immediate information when a patient presents with chest pain includes:
A. Family history only
B. Pain scale, EKG, vital signs, and allergies
C. Diet history only
D. Skin assessment only
Rationale: Rapid assessment (pain, ECG, vitals, allergies) guides urgent interventions.
The types of assessment databases include:
A. Surgical only
B. Diet, exercise, and sleep only
C. Emergency, follow-up, focused/problem-centered, and total health (complete)
D. Pharmacy only
Rationale: Nursing assessment databases vary by scope and urgency of data collected.
The purpose of percussion during chest assessment is to:
A. Measure pulse rate
B. Assess underlying structures (air, fluid, solid) by sound quality
C. Sterilize the stethoscope
D. Test muscle strength
Rationale: Percussion notes help infer density of tissues (e.g., consolidation, effusion).
When performing a physical exam on an end-stage HIV patient, appropriate PPE includes:
A. No PPE required
B. Gloves only
C. Gloves, gown, and face shield
D. N95 only
Rationale: Standard/contact precautions with appropriate PPE protect clinician and patient; use
gown/face shield if exposure risk.
Which of the following is not one of the five components of the general survey?
A. Health state
B. Physical appearance
C. Body structure
D. Complete neurological testing
, ESTUDYR
Rationale: General survey includes health state, appearance, body structure, mobility, behavior — full
neuro exam is separate.
Under body structure, the nurse assesses:
A. Speech patterns only
B. Stature, nutrition, symmetry, posture, position
C. Reflexes only
D. Breath sounds only
Rationale: Body structure focuses on anatomic and postural observations.
A normal gait should be described as:
A. Narrow base and shuffling always
B. Shoulder-width base, smooth, balanced with symmetric arm swing
C. Stooped and uneven only
D. Asymmetrical arm swing only
Rationale: Normal gait has even, balanced steps and symmetrical arm movement.
Behaviors evaluated during the general survey include all EXCEPT:
A. Facial expression
B. Mood/affect
C. Speech and hygiene
D. Detailed reflex testing
Rationale: General survey captures gross behaviors—detailed reflexes are part of neuro exam.
For accurate height measurement, the patient should be:
A. Wearing shoes and looking down
B. Shoeless, standing straight, looking forward, using wall-mounted device
C. Reclined in bed
D. Measured while sitting only
Rationale: Proper technique ensures consistent, reproducible height measurement.
Waist circumference is important because it:
A. Measures BP
B. Indicates central obesity risk beyond BMI (cardiometabolic risk)
C. Replaces BMI completely
D. Has no clinical importance
Rationale: Waist circumference correlates with visceral fat and disease risk.
The nursing database for clinical judgment includes:
A. Only subjective data
B. Subjective + objective data, medical records, and lab results
C. Only medication list
D. Only imaging studies
Rationale: Clinical decisions integrate all types of patient data.
NURS 1010 QUIZ 4 (WEEKS 4 + 5) WITHOUT REVIEW PAPER
|EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 100%
CORRECT
Which of the following is part of the physical appearance component of the general survey?
A. Muscle strength
B. Gait symmetry
C. Skin color, facial features, level of consciousness
D. Deep tendon reflexes
Rationale: Physical appearance focuses on visible features such as age appearance, skin color, facial
features, and LOC.
A patient who avoids eye contact, appears tearful, and gives short responses most likely requires:
A. Immediate discharge
B. Reassessment of mood and screening for depression/suicidality
C. No follow-up needed
D. Only pain assessment
Rationale: Those behaviors suggest mood disturbance and need further psychosocial assessment.
BMI is a practical clinical tool primarily used to:
A. Diagnose infection
B. Screen for undernutrition and obesity; helps assess protein-calorie malnutrition
C. Measure bone density
D. Assess liver function
Rationale: BMI estimates body mass and can indicate under- or over-nutrition.
Which type of reasoning is used first in diagnostic thinking when data are incomplete?
A. Inductive
B. Deductive
C. Abductive
D. Analogical
Rationale: Abductive reasoning generates the most likely hypothesis from incomplete cues.
An example of a second-level priority problem is:
A. Cardiac arrest
B. Stable patient with low urine output
C. Routine health teaching
D. Discharge planning only
Rationale: Second-level problems are not immediately life-threatening but require prompt attention to
prevent deterioration.
,ESTUDYR
Which of these is a first-level priority patient scenario?
A. Low urine output in otherwise stable patient
B. Mild anxiety
C. 48-year-old with chest pain
D. Routine medication refill
Rationale: First-level problems are emergent (airway, breathing, circulation) — chest pain may indicate
MI.
Essential immediate information when a patient presents with chest pain includes:
A. Family history only
B. Pain scale, EKG, vital signs, and allergies
C. Diet history only
D. Skin assessment only
Rationale: Rapid assessment (pain, ECG, vitals, allergies) guides urgent interventions.
The types of assessment databases include:
A. Surgical only
B. Diet, exercise, and sleep only
C. Emergency, follow-up, focused/problem-centered, and total health (complete)
D. Pharmacy only
Rationale: Nursing assessment databases vary by scope and urgency of data collected.
The purpose of percussion during chest assessment is to:
A. Measure pulse rate
B. Assess underlying structures (air, fluid, solid) by sound quality
C. Sterilize the stethoscope
D. Test muscle strength
Rationale: Percussion notes help infer density of tissues (e.g., consolidation, effusion).
When performing a physical exam on an end-stage HIV patient, appropriate PPE includes:
A. No PPE required
B. Gloves only
C. Gloves, gown, and face shield
D. N95 only
Rationale: Standard/contact precautions with appropriate PPE protect clinician and patient; use
gown/face shield if exposure risk.
Which of the following is not one of the five components of the general survey?
A. Health state
B. Physical appearance
C. Body structure
D. Complete neurological testing
, ESTUDYR
Rationale: General survey includes health state, appearance, body structure, mobility, behavior — full
neuro exam is separate.
Under body structure, the nurse assesses:
A. Speech patterns only
B. Stature, nutrition, symmetry, posture, position
C. Reflexes only
D. Breath sounds only
Rationale: Body structure focuses on anatomic and postural observations.
A normal gait should be described as:
A. Narrow base and shuffling always
B. Shoulder-width base, smooth, balanced with symmetric arm swing
C. Stooped and uneven only
D. Asymmetrical arm swing only
Rationale: Normal gait has even, balanced steps and symmetrical arm movement.
Behaviors evaluated during the general survey include all EXCEPT:
A. Facial expression
B. Mood/affect
C. Speech and hygiene
D. Detailed reflex testing
Rationale: General survey captures gross behaviors—detailed reflexes are part of neuro exam.
For accurate height measurement, the patient should be:
A. Wearing shoes and looking down
B. Shoeless, standing straight, looking forward, using wall-mounted device
C. Reclined in bed
D. Measured while sitting only
Rationale: Proper technique ensures consistent, reproducible height measurement.
Waist circumference is important because it:
A. Measures BP
B. Indicates central obesity risk beyond BMI (cardiometabolic risk)
C. Replaces BMI completely
D. Has no clinical importance
Rationale: Waist circumference correlates with visceral fat and disease risk.
The nursing database for clinical judgment includes:
A. Only subjective data
B. Subjective + objective data, medical records, and lab results
C. Only medication list
D. Only imaging studies
Rationale: Clinical decisions integrate all types of patient data.
