NURS 623 Final Exam 2026: Ultimate Study
Guide with Practice Questions & Answers
Description:
Struggling to prepare for your NURS 623 Final Exam? This comprehensive 2026 study
guide is precisely what you need. We provide a complete review with actual practice
questions, detailed answers, and clear explanations aligned with the latest curriculum.
Covering critical topics from abdominal assessment and differential diagnosis to musculoskeletal
disorders, mental health, and geriatric care, this resource is designed to test your knowledge and
solidify your understanding. Whether you're looking for a final exam review, test bank, or
study aid for your NURS 623 course, our guide offers the targeted practice essential for success.
Ace your exam with confidence—Download your ultimate study partner now!
, NURS 623 Final Exam Guide 2026: Questions, Answers &
Explanations
1. What is the correct sequence for performing an abdominal assessment?
A. Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation, Inspection
B. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
C. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
D. Palpation, Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion
Answer: C
Explanation: The sequence is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and then palpation.
Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation because these latter maneuvers can
alter bowel motility and sounds.
2. During an abdominal exam, a hyperresonant sound upon percussion is most indicative of which
condition?
A. Ascites
B. A large solid mass
C. Gaseous distention
D. Organomegaly
Answer: C
Explanation: A hyperresonant or tympanic sound is produced when percussing over air. In the
abdomen, this is typically due to excessive gas within the intestines.
3. A 35-year-old female presents to the clinic with abdominal pain. Which components are essential
for her evaluation?
A. A detailed sexual history
B. A pelvic examination
C. A digital rectal exam
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: For a woman of reproductive age with abdominal pain, a comprehensive
, evaluation must include a sexual history and both pelvic and rectal examinations to rule out
gynecological, gastrointestinal, and urological pathologies, including pregnancy and its
complications.
4. A 28-year-old patient reports colicky abdominal pain after meals, along with frequent
constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which factor makes a diagnosis of
diverticulitis least likely?
A. The presence of flatulence
B. The colicky nature of the pain
C. The patient's age
D. The history of constipation
Answer: C
Explanation: Diverticulitis is uncommon in young adults and is typically a disease of older
individuals. The other symptoms, while non-specific, are not uncommon in younger patients
with conditions like irritable bowel syndrome.
5. A 25-year-old describes a 6-month history of crampy postprandial abdominal pain, alternating
constipation and diarrhea, relief with defecation, and embarrassment from flatulence and
bloating, with no weight loss or rectal bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Order a barium enema
B. Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics
C. Schedule a Bernstein test
D. Obtain a comprehensive history
Answer: D
Explanation: The patient's symptoms are classic for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a
functional disorder. The next critical step is to obtain a thorough history to establish a positive
diagnosis using established criteria (e.g., Rome IV criteria) and to rule out "red flag" symptoms
before proceeding with invasive or expensive testing.
Guide with Practice Questions & Answers
Description:
Struggling to prepare for your NURS 623 Final Exam? This comprehensive 2026 study
guide is precisely what you need. We provide a complete review with actual practice
questions, detailed answers, and clear explanations aligned with the latest curriculum.
Covering critical topics from abdominal assessment and differential diagnosis to musculoskeletal
disorders, mental health, and geriatric care, this resource is designed to test your knowledge and
solidify your understanding. Whether you're looking for a final exam review, test bank, or
study aid for your NURS 623 course, our guide offers the targeted practice essential for success.
Ace your exam with confidence—Download your ultimate study partner now!
, NURS 623 Final Exam Guide 2026: Questions, Answers &
Explanations
1. What is the correct sequence for performing an abdominal assessment?
A. Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation, Inspection
B. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
C. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
D. Palpation, Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion
Answer: C
Explanation: The sequence is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and then palpation.
Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation because these latter maneuvers can
alter bowel motility and sounds.
2. During an abdominal exam, a hyperresonant sound upon percussion is most indicative of which
condition?
A. Ascites
B. A large solid mass
C. Gaseous distention
D. Organomegaly
Answer: C
Explanation: A hyperresonant or tympanic sound is produced when percussing over air. In the
abdomen, this is typically due to excessive gas within the intestines.
3. A 35-year-old female presents to the clinic with abdominal pain. Which components are essential
for her evaluation?
A. A detailed sexual history
B. A pelvic examination
C. A digital rectal exam
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: For a woman of reproductive age with abdominal pain, a comprehensive
, evaluation must include a sexual history and both pelvic and rectal examinations to rule out
gynecological, gastrointestinal, and urological pathologies, including pregnancy and its
complications.
4. A 28-year-old patient reports colicky abdominal pain after meals, along with frequent
constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which factor makes a diagnosis of
diverticulitis least likely?
A. The presence of flatulence
B. The colicky nature of the pain
C. The patient's age
D. The history of constipation
Answer: C
Explanation: Diverticulitis is uncommon in young adults and is typically a disease of older
individuals. The other symptoms, while non-specific, are not uncommon in younger patients
with conditions like irritable bowel syndrome.
5. A 25-year-old describes a 6-month history of crampy postprandial abdominal pain, alternating
constipation and diarrhea, relief with defecation, and embarrassment from flatulence and
bloating, with no weight loss or rectal bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Order a barium enema
B. Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics
C. Schedule a Bernstein test
D. Obtain a comprehensive history
Answer: D
Explanation: The patient's symptoms are classic for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a
functional disorder. The next critical step is to obtain a thorough history to establish a positive
diagnosis using established criteria (e.g., Rome IV criteria) and to rule out "red flag" symptoms
before proceeding with invasive or expensive testing.
