HESI RN EXIT EXAM V1-V7
(2025/2026 ) / NCLEX&NGN
STYLE RN EXIT HESI EXAM
Versions and Sub-Versions
V1a,bc, V2a,b,c ,V3a,b,c, V4a,b,c,V5a,b,c ,V6a,b,c
,V7a,b,c
ENTAILS +200 QUESTIONS
Multiple choice
Rationales
Short answers
Nclex & NGN STLE
,V1a,b, c
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports shortness of
breath and has bilateral crackles. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Administer PRN acetaminophen
B. Raise the head of the bed to high-Fowler’s position
C. Encourage the client to drink fluids
D. Assess peripheral pulses
Rationale: Raising the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and
decreases venous return, improving oxygenation. Under the ABCs
(airway, breathing, circulation), addressing breathing takes priority.
Acetaminophen does not treat dyspnea. Extra fluids worsen pulmonary
congestion. Pulse assessment is secondary.
Question 2
The nurse receives a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The
client’s apical pulse is 52 bpm. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication as ordered
B. Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider
C. Recheck the pulse in 5 minutes
D. Document and continue to monitor
Rationale: Digoxin should be held if the pulse < 60 bpm to prevent
bradycardia and toxicity. The provider must be informed. Giving it
could worsen bradycardia. Rechecking delays action. Documentation
without intervention risks harm.
Question 3
A postoperative client reports severe pain rated 9/10. The nurse notes
shallow respirations at 10 breaths/min 20 minutes after IV morphine.
,Which action is priority?
A. Assess surgical site for bleeding
B. Administer naloxone as prescribed
C. Reposition the client and reassess in 15 minutes
D. Provide emotional reassurance
Rationale: Morphine-induced respiratory depression is life-threatening.
The nurse must give naloxone, an opioid antagonist, immediately.
Bleeding is not the immediate threat. Repositioning won’t improve
respirations. Reassurance delays lifesaving care.
Question 4
A client with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for surgery in the morning.
The provider orders NPO after midnight. Which instruction should the
nurse give regarding insulin?
A. Take all insulin doses as usual
B. Hold the regular insulin and give half the NPH dose as ordered
C. Skip all insulin doses
D. Take the regular insulin only
Rationale: When NPO, short-acting insulin should be held to prevent
hypoglycemia; half the NPH dose maintains basal control. Taking all
insulin risks hypoglycemia. Skipping all causes hyperglycemia or
ketosis. Regular insulin alone is unsafe pre-op.
Question 5
A nurse is teaching a client newly prescribed warfarin. Which statement
indicates correct understanding?
A. “I’ll eat more spinach to increase my vitamin K.”
B. “I can take ibuprofen if I get a headache.”
C. “I’ll keep my diet consistent and get my blood levels checked
regularly.”
D. “If I miss a dose, I’ll double the next one.”
Rationale: Warfarin effectiveness depends on consistent vitamin K
intake and regular INR checks. Extra vitamin K reduces effect. NSAIDs
increase bleeding risk. Doubling doses may cause hemorrhage.
, Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports shortness of
breath and has bilateral crackles. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Administer PRN acetaminophen
B. Raise the head of the bed to high-Fowler’s position
C. Encourage the client to drink fluids
D. Assess peripheral pulses
Rationale: Raising the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and
decreases venous return, improving oxygenation. This addresses the
immediate breathing concern under the ABCs framework.
Acetaminophen doesn’t treat dyspnea, fluids worsen congestion, and
pulse assessment is secondary.
Question 2
The nurse receives a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The
client’s apical pulse is 52 bpm. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication as ordered
B. Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider
C. Recheck the pulse in 5 minutes
D. Document and continue to monitor
Rationale: Digoxin slows conduction through the AV node and can
cause bradycardia. The nurse should hold the dose if the apical pulse is
below 60 bpm and notify the provider. Administering the drug may
worsen bradycardia, and waiting to act delays intervention.
Question 3
A postoperative client reports severe pain rated 9/10. The nurse notes
shallow respirations at 10 breaths/min after IV morphine. Which action
is priority?
A. Assess surgical site for bleeding
B. Administer naloxone as prescribed
C. Reposition the client and reassess in 15 minutes
D. Provide emotional reassurance
Rationale: The client shows signs of opioid-induced respiratory
(2025/2026 ) / NCLEX&NGN
STYLE RN EXIT HESI EXAM
Versions and Sub-Versions
V1a,bc, V2a,b,c ,V3a,b,c, V4a,b,c,V5a,b,c ,V6a,b,c
,V7a,b,c
ENTAILS +200 QUESTIONS
Multiple choice
Rationales
Short answers
Nclex & NGN STLE
,V1a,b, c
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports shortness of
breath and has bilateral crackles. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Administer PRN acetaminophen
B. Raise the head of the bed to high-Fowler’s position
C. Encourage the client to drink fluids
D. Assess peripheral pulses
Rationale: Raising the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and
decreases venous return, improving oxygenation. Under the ABCs
(airway, breathing, circulation), addressing breathing takes priority.
Acetaminophen does not treat dyspnea. Extra fluids worsen pulmonary
congestion. Pulse assessment is secondary.
Question 2
The nurse receives a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The
client’s apical pulse is 52 bpm. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication as ordered
B. Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider
C. Recheck the pulse in 5 minutes
D. Document and continue to monitor
Rationale: Digoxin should be held if the pulse < 60 bpm to prevent
bradycardia and toxicity. The provider must be informed. Giving it
could worsen bradycardia. Rechecking delays action. Documentation
without intervention risks harm.
Question 3
A postoperative client reports severe pain rated 9/10. The nurse notes
shallow respirations at 10 breaths/min 20 minutes after IV morphine.
,Which action is priority?
A. Assess surgical site for bleeding
B. Administer naloxone as prescribed
C. Reposition the client and reassess in 15 minutes
D. Provide emotional reassurance
Rationale: Morphine-induced respiratory depression is life-threatening.
The nurse must give naloxone, an opioid antagonist, immediately.
Bleeding is not the immediate threat. Repositioning won’t improve
respirations. Reassurance delays lifesaving care.
Question 4
A client with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for surgery in the morning.
The provider orders NPO after midnight. Which instruction should the
nurse give regarding insulin?
A. Take all insulin doses as usual
B. Hold the regular insulin and give half the NPH dose as ordered
C. Skip all insulin doses
D. Take the regular insulin only
Rationale: When NPO, short-acting insulin should be held to prevent
hypoglycemia; half the NPH dose maintains basal control. Taking all
insulin risks hypoglycemia. Skipping all causes hyperglycemia or
ketosis. Regular insulin alone is unsafe pre-op.
Question 5
A nurse is teaching a client newly prescribed warfarin. Which statement
indicates correct understanding?
A. “I’ll eat more spinach to increase my vitamin K.”
B. “I can take ibuprofen if I get a headache.”
C. “I’ll keep my diet consistent and get my blood levels checked
regularly.”
D. “If I miss a dose, I’ll double the next one.”
Rationale: Warfarin effectiveness depends on consistent vitamin K
intake and regular INR checks. Extra vitamin K reduces effect. NSAIDs
increase bleeding risk. Doubling doses may cause hemorrhage.
, Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports shortness of
breath and has bilateral crackles. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Administer PRN acetaminophen
B. Raise the head of the bed to high-Fowler’s position
C. Encourage the client to drink fluids
D. Assess peripheral pulses
Rationale: Raising the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and
decreases venous return, improving oxygenation. This addresses the
immediate breathing concern under the ABCs framework.
Acetaminophen doesn’t treat dyspnea, fluids worsen congestion, and
pulse assessment is secondary.
Question 2
The nurse receives a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The
client’s apical pulse is 52 bpm. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication as ordered
B. Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider
C. Recheck the pulse in 5 minutes
D. Document and continue to monitor
Rationale: Digoxin slows conduction through the AV node and can
cause bradycardia. The nurse should hold the dose if the apical pulse is
below 60 bpm and notify the provider. Administering the drug may
worsen bradycardia, and waiting to act delays intervention.
Question 3
A postoperative client reports severe pain rated 9/10. The nurse notes
shallow respirations at 10 breaths/min after IV morphine. Which action
is priority?
A. Assess surgical site for bleeding
B. Administer naloxone as prescribed
C. Reposition the client and reassess in 15 minutes
D. Provide emotional reassurance
Rationale: The client shows signs of opioid-induced respiratory
