NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025 Prep Test
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A patient is transferred from an ICU step-down unit to the general floor for follow-up care. During an
assessment of the patient, the respiratory therapist notes that the patient has an 8.0-mm
fenestrated tracheostomy tube in place while breathing spontaneously. Cuff pressure is checked and
found to be 18 mm Hg. Which of the following should the therapist do?
A. perform the minimal leak technique
B. add air to the cuff
C. perform the minimum seal technique
D. removal all air from the cuff –
Correct Answer :D.
For patients who have a tracheostomy and that do not require aspiration protection and/or positive
pressure ventilation, the cuff should not be inflated. Because they patient is breathing
spontaneously, cuff pressure is unnecessary and could promote damage to the mucosa. Therefore,
all air should be removed from the cuff.
Once a patient is found to have a moderate obstructive pulmonary impairment, which of the
following values would be most helpful at determining the presence of pulmonary emphysema?
A. Fev1/FVC%
B. DLCO
C. FEF25-75
D. Nitrogen washout –
Correct Answer :B.
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, NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
While monitoring a newborn, the respiratory therapist notices the TcO2 tracing on the monitor
suddenly rises sharply. Which of the following is the mostly likely explanation for this rise?
A. the transcutaneous electrode requires calibration
B. transcutaneous electrode has become detached from the skin
C. the transcutaneous electrode is below required temperature
D. the patient's arterial oxygenation has improved –
Correct Answer :B.
The transcutaneous oxygen probe is a device that is placed on an infant's skin that can analyze the
PaO2 through the skin or transcutaneously. When the probe becomes dislodged, the electrode
measures the oxygen tension in the room, which is always higher than the oxygen tension in the
artery. Thus, a sharp rise will be noted.
A respiratory therapist discontinues a small volume nebulizer started with mucomyst after 5 minutes
due to a patient's poor tolerance of the therapy. SpO2 dropped from 95% to 86%, heart rate
increased from 88 to 128 bpm. The patient returns to a normal condition shortly after the treatment
is stopped. The next action would be to
A. administer after adding a unit dose of Proventil.
B. administer with a lower dose of mucomyst.
C. document in the medical record and notify the physician.
D. administer with 100% oxygen. –
Correct Answer :C.
In this example, the patient did not tolerate the therapy. Therefore, the respiratory therapist should
discontinue therapy & notify the ordering physician. A note about the patient's tolerance should also
be made in the medical record.
A patient who weighs 70 kg (154 lb) has a minute ventilation requirement of 15 L/min to maintain a
PaCO2 of 43 torr. Which of the following can explain the ventilatory requirements?
A. decreased PVR
B. decreased dead space ventilation
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, NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
C. pulmonary emphysema
D. febrile conditions –
Correct Answer :D.
The patient is febrile and likely has an infection, which can cause an increase in minute ventilation.
Intrapulmonary shunting will also cause the patient to increase minute ventilatory requirements.
The emergency response team is monitoring a patient when the rhythm on the monitor transitions
to ventricular tachycardia. The patient has a pulse. Prior to cardioversion, the respiratory therapist
should do which of the following before handing the physician the paddles?
A. ensure synchronization is active
B. call "Clear"
C. set defibrillation to 360 joules
D. administer sodium bicarbonate –
Correct Answer :A.
Ventricular tachycardia with a pulse must be treated by cardioversion. Cardioversion differs from
defibrillation by the number of watts or Jules administered and by how it synchronizes with the
heart. Pure defibrillation requires no synchronization with a heart. However, cardioversion requires
that the synchronization be set to active prior to delivery of the electrical shock.
While performing pulmonary function testing, the respiratory therapist asks the patient to inhale and
exhale maximally at a maximum rate for 12 seconds. Which of the following is being measured?
A. MVV
B. FEV1
C. minute alveolar ventilation
D. FVC –
Correct Answer :A.
The pulmonary function maneuver expressed, when the patient is asked to exhale maximally at a
maximum rate for 12 seconds, is called maximum voluntary ventilation or MVV. Since the patient is
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, NBRC / TMC / RRT Exam 2025
most likely unable to breathe in and out maximally for a whole minute, the patient may be asked to
do so for 12 seconds and then the result is multiplied by 5. 15 seconds is also another interval that
may be used and it would be multiplied by 4 to calculate the MVV.
A respiratory therapist is transporting a closed biohazard container of used, disposable needles for
sterilization. Which method is most appropriate to sterilize the used needles?
A. Acid Gluteraldehyde
B. Irradiation followed by ethylene oxide
C. Alkaline Gluteraldehyde
D. Incineration –
Correct Answer :D.
Incineration is the best sterilizing technique for non-disposable equipment such as blood-laden
needles. Incineration, of course, will destroy the equipment but will sterilize the material.
To determine the evenness of distribution of inhaled gases in an obstructive patient, the therapist
should observe which of the following results?
A. phase III of a nitrogen elimination test (SBN2)
B. phase I and II of an SBN2 test
C. thoracic gas volume by body box
D. closing volume –
Correct Answer :A.
A single breath nitrogen elimination test (SBN2) I is useful in determining the evenness of gas
distribution in the lungs. The results come in four phases as the patient exhales a single breath.
Phase I is the exhalation of pure deadspace gas. Phase II consists of some deadspace and some
alveolar gas. Phase III consists of pure alveolar gas and is the phase that indicates the evenness of
distribution. Phase IV is called "closing volume".
Which of the following may NOT be used with a face mask?
A. NPPV
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