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Examen

FNP 593 FINAL EXAM 2025/2026 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% PASS

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FNP 593 FINAL EXAM 2025/2026 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% PASS

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FNP 593
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Institución
FNP 593
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FNP 593

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Subido en
6 de octubre de 2025
Número de páginas
27
Escrito en
2025/2026
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Examen
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FNP 593 FINAL EXAM 2025/2026
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% PASS




Which of the following statements is true regarding pain?
a. If a patient complains of pain but has no physical signs, he or she is most likely
exhibiting drug-seeking behaviors.
b. Acute pain is more intense and severe than chronic pain.
c. Pain is a subjective experience related to actual or potential tissue damage.

d. All of the above - ANS c. Pain is a subjective experience related to actual or potential tissue
damage.


Which of the following would be a cause of visceral pain?
a. Bone metastases
b. Intra-abdominal metastases
c. Musculoskeletal inflammation

d. Postsurgical incisional pain - ANS b. Intra-abdominal metastases


According to the World Health Organization's analgesic ladder, which drug combination would
be
most appropriate in an opiate-naïve patient who presents with moderate pain?
a. Ibuprofen/imipramine
b. Naproxen/morphine
c. Aspirin/fentanyl

d. Indomethacin/hydrocodone - ANS d. Indomethacin/hydrocodone

1 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED

,A 75-year-old man is being treated as an outpatient for metastatic prostate cancer. Which of
the
following statements is true regarding the management of pain with opioids in the elderly?
a. Opioids with a long half-life, such as methadone, are a good choice, because they
stay in the system longer, and patients do not have to remember to take multiple
pills.
b. Serum creatinine is the best measurement of renal function in the elderly and
should be done prior to the initiation of treatment with opioids.
c. Renal clearance of medications is faster in the elderly, so higher dosages of
medications are needed to adequately control pain.

d. None of the above - ANS d. None of the above


A patient had a transdermal fentanyl patch placed 2 hours ago and is not getting any pain relief.
What would be the most appropriate intervention?
a. Remove the current patch and replace with a new fentanyl patch at a higher dose.
b. Prescribe a short-acting opioid for breakthrough pain.
c. Remove the patch and switch to a different intravenous opioid.
d. Tell the patient not to worry, as it takes about 12 hours for the patch's effects to be

felt, and he will have relief at that time. - ANS b. Prescribe a short-acting opioid for
breakthrough pain.


A patient is preparing to be discharged to home with hospice. She is on a morphine
patientcontrolled
analgesia (PCA) in the hospital. She is concerned as to whether she can stay on her
morphine PCA at home even when she is not able to give herself boluses. What would be an
appropriate response from the clinician?
a. "We are unable to prescribe a PCA for use at home. If you are comfortable on the
PCA, you should remain in the hospital."


2 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED

, b. "It would be possible for your nurse or another trained family member to activate
the dosing button when you are unable to do so."
c. "A PCA is not an appropriate method of pain medication delivery once you are
unable to use the dosing button. I will switch you to another form of pain control."
d. "You should not be concerned about your pain management at home. It will be

taken care of for you." - ANS b. "It would be possible for your nurse or another trained family
member to activate
the dosing button when you are unable to do so."


A patient taking PO hydromorphone for pain control has developed dysphagia. The clinician
decides
to switch the patient to IV hydromorphone. What ratio of IV:PO hydromorphone does the
clinician
need to know to calculate the proper dose?
a. 1:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:5

d. 1:7 - ANS c. 1:5


A patient is receiving long-acting oxycodone for pain control. The clinician thinks that he also
will
benefit from a short-acting oxycodone for breakthrough pain. How will the clinician figure out
what
the dose of short-acting oxycodone should be?
a. The short-acting dose should be 10% to 20% of the total 24-hour long-acting dose.
b. The short-acting dose should be 40% to 50% of the total 24-hour long-acting dose.
c. The short-acting dose should be 10% to 20% of each long-acting dose.

d. The short-acting dose should be 40% to 50% of each long-acting dose. - ANS a. The short-
acting dose should be 10% to 20% of the total 24-hour long-acting dose.




3 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED
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