NSG 5644 – Family Nurse Practitioner
Residency Practice Exam 2 Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2025|2026 Q&A |
Instant Download Pdf| South College
1. A 55-year-old patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which
adverse effect should you counsel the patient about most specifically?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Cough
D. Hypoglycemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry cough due to
increased bradykinin; monitor potassium but cough is classic.
2. Which screening is recommended annually for a 65-year-old with a 30-
pack-year smoking history?
, A. Colonoscopy
B. Low-dose CT scan for lung cancer (if within screening criteria)
C. Mammography
D. DEXA scan
Rationale: Annual low-dose CT is recommended for eligible heavy
smokers (typically 55–80 with ≥30 pack-years and current or quit
within 15 years).
3. A patient presents with sudden, unilateral facial weakness including
inability to close the eye. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Stroke of the motor cortex
B. Bell’s palsy (facial nerve palsy)
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Rationale: Bell’s palsy causes peripheral facial nerve palsy with
inability to close the eye; central lesions usually spare forehead.
4. First-line medication for acute gout flare in a patient without
contraindications is:
A. Allopurinol
B. NSAIDs (e.g., indomethacin)
C. Probenecid
D. Colchicine for chronic prevention
Rationale: NSAIDs are first-line for acute gout flares; allopurinol is for
chronic urate lowering.
,5. A 30-year-old woman requests contraception and prefers non-daily
methods. Which option is best for immediate efficacy and high
effectiveness?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pill
B. Diaphragm
C. Progestin implant (e.g., etonogestrel implant)
D. Spermicides
Rationale: Implants provide long-acting reversible contraception with
high efficacy and no daily action.
6. The most appropriate management for a child with acute otitis media
and severe otalgia and fever is:
A. Watchful waiting for 48 hours
B. Start oral antibiotics (e.g., amoxicillin)
C. Topical steroids
D. Antihistamines only
Rationale: In severe presentations or young children, prompt
antibiotic therapy is recommended; amoxicillin is first-line.
7. A patient presents with chest pain. Which feature makes myocardial
ischemia more likely?
A. Sharp pain reproducible by palpation
B. Pain that changes with respiration
C. Exertional chest pain relieved by rest
D. Pain localized to one rib
, Rationale: Ischemic chest pain is classically exertional and relieved by
rest; reproducible pain suggests musculoskeletal causes.
8. For type 2 diabetes, which A1c target is reasonable for most
nonpregnant adults?
A. <5.7%
B. <6.0%
C. <7.0%
D. <8.5%
Rationale: Most guidelines recommend A1c <7% for many
nonpregnant adults to reduce microvascular risk while balancing
hypoglycemia risk.
9. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity
risk?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Cephalexin
D. Azithromycin
Rationale: Tetracyclines can cause fetal bone and teeth abnormalities
and are avoided in pregnancy.
10. A 70-year-old with multiple comorbidities has an eGFR of 25
mL/min/1.73m². Which medication requires dose adjustment or
avoidance?
A. Acetaminophen
Residency Practice Exam 2 Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2025|2026 Q&A |
Instant Download Pdf| South College
1. A 55-year-old patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which
adverse effect should you counsel the patient about most specifically?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Cough
D. Hypoglycemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry cough due to
increased bradykinin; monitor potassium but cough is classic.
2. Which screening is recommended annually for a 65-year-old with a 30-
pack-year smoking history?
, A. Colonoscopy
B. Low-dose CT scan for lung cancer (if within screening criteria)
C. Mammography
D. DEXA scan
Rationale: Annual low-dose CT is recommended for eligible heavy
smokers (typically 55–80 with ≥30 pack-years and current or quit
within 15 years).
3. A patient presents with sudden, unilateral facial weakness including
inability to close the eye. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Stroke of the motor cortex
B. Bell’s palsy (facial nerve palsy)
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Rationale: Bell’s palsy causes peripheral facial nerve palsy with
inability to close the eye; central lesions usually spare forehead.
4. First-line medication for acute gout flare in a patient without
contraindications is:
A. Allopurinol
B. NSAIDs (e.g., indomethacin)
C. Probenecid
D. Colchicine for chronic prevention
Rationale: NSAIDs are first-line for acute gout flares; allopurinol is for
chronic urate lowering.
,5. A 30-year-old woman requests contraception and prefers non-daily
methods. Which option is best for immediate efficacy and high
effectiveness?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pill
B. Diaphragm
C. Progestin implant (e.g., etonogestrel implant)
D. Spermicides
Rationale: Implants provide long-acting reversible contraception with
high efficacy and no daily action.
6. The most appropriate management for a child with acute otitis media
and severe otalgia and fever is:
A. Watchful waiting for 48 hours
B. Start oral antibiotics (e.g., amoxicillin)
C. Topical steroids
D. Antihistamines only
Rationale: In severe presentations or young children, prompt
antibiotic therapy is recommended; amoxicillin is first-line.
7. A patient presents with chest pain. Which feature makes myocardial
ischemia more likely?
A. Sharp pain reproducible by palpation
B. Pain that changes with respiration
C. Exertional chest pain relieved by rest
D. Pain localized to one rib
, Rationale: Ischemic chest pain is classically exertional and relieved by
rest; reproducible pain suggests musculoskeletal causes.
8. For type 2 diabetes, which A1c target is reasonable for most
nonpregnant adults?
A. <5.7%
B. <6.0%
C. <7.0%
D. <8.5%
Rationale: Most guidelines recommend A1c <7% for many
nonpregnant adults to reduce microvascular risk while balancing
hypoglycemia risk.
9. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity
risk?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Cephalexin
D. Azithromycin
Rationale: Tetracyclines can cause fetal bone and teeth abnormalities
and are avoided in pregnancy.
10. A 70-year-old with multiple comorbidities has an eGFR of 25
mL/min/1.73m². Which medication requires dose adjustment or
avoidance?
A. Acetaminophen
