Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam 1 – 2025 – Complete
Verified Questions and Answers
A 30-year old patient has been diagnosed with advanced ovarian cancer. The patient says, "This
is all my fault." Which of Kubler-Ross's five stages of grief is the patient probably experiencing?
A.Denial
B.Anger
C.Depression
D.Acceptance - B. The patient is experiencing the stage of anger. People grieve individually and
may not go through all stages, but most go through at least 2 stages. Kubler-Ross's 5 stages of
grief include:
Denial: Refusal to believe, confused, stunned, detached.
Anger: Directed inward (self-blame) or outward.
Bargaining: If - then thinking. ("If I go to church, then I will heal.")
Depression: Sad, withdrawn.
Acceptance: Resolution.
A 50-year-old male with a diagnosis of leukemia is responding poorly to treatment. He is tearful
and trying
to express his feelings, but he is having diffi culty. The nurse should fi rst:
A. tell him that she will leave for now but she will be back.
B. offer to call pastoral care.
C. ask if he would like her to sit with him while he collects his thoughts.
D. tell him that she can understand how he is feeling. - C. ask if he would like her to sit with him
while he collects his thoughts.
,Rationale: The patient needs to feel that people are concerned with his situation. Option A
is incorrect because leaving the patient doesn't show acceptance of his feelings. Option B is
incorrect because offering to call pastoral care may be helpful for some patients but should be
done after the nurse has spent time with the patient. Option D is incorrect because telling the
patient that she understands how he's feeling is inappropriate because it doesn't help him
express his feelings.
A 55-year-old black male is found to have a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during a work site
health
screening. What should the nurse do?
A. Consider this to be a normal finding for his age and race.
B. Recommend he have his blood pressure rechecked in 1 year.
C. Recommend he have his blood pressure rechecked within 2 weeks.
D. Recommend he go to the emergency department for further evaluation. - C. Recommend he
have his blood pressure rechecked within 2 weeks.
Rationale: A BP of 150/90 mm Hg should be rechecked within 2 weeks according to
current recommendations. If confirmed, assessment and treatment should be initiated by the
practitioner.
Option A is incorrect because although hypertension is more prevalent among blacks, a BP of
150/90 mm Hg isn't considered normal. Option B is incorrect because a person with a BP
of 150/90 mm Hg shouldn't wait as long as 1 year to have it rechecked.
Option D is incorrect because he doesn't need to be treated on an emergency basis, but he
should have his BP monitored.
A 60-year-old male patient is suspected of having coronary artery disease. Which noninvasive
diagnostic
method would the nurse expect to be ordered to evaluate cardiac changes?
A. Cardiac biopsy
,B. Cardiac catheterization
C. MRI
D. Pericardiocentesis - C. MRI
Rationale: MRI is a noninvasive procedure that aids in the diagnosis and detection of thoracic
aortic aneurysm and evaluation of coronary artery disease, pericardial disease, and cardiac
masses.
Cardiac biopsy (Option A), cardiac catheterization (Option B), and pericardiocentesis (Option D)
are invasive
techniques used to evaluate cardiac changes.
A 66-year-old patient has marked dyspnea at rest, is thin, and uses accessory muscles to
breathe. He is
tachypneic, with a prolonged expiratory phase. He has no cough. He leans forward with his arms
braced on his
knees to support his chest and shoulders for breathing. This patient has signs and symptoms of
which respiratory
disorder?
A. ARDS
B. Asthma
C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
D. Emphysema - D. Emphysema
Rationale: These are classic signs and symptoms of a patient with emphysema. Patients with
ARDS (Option A) are acutely short of breath and require emergency care; those with asthma
(option B) are also acutely short of breath during an attack and appear very frightened. Patients
with chronic obstructive bronchitis (Option C) appear bloated and cyanotic
, A 68-year old man with mild COPD refuses to exercise because he tires easily. He spends most of
every day sitting in a chair watching television. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A.Ineffective health maintenance
B.Impaired physical mobility
C.Risk for disuse syndrome
D.Activity intolerance - C. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a person who is able to
exercise but remains sedentary is risk of disuse syndrome because the patient is putting himself
at risk for the development of circulatory impairment and muscle atrophy. Failure to exercise
may also exacerbate his condition. While his health maintenance may be ineffective, it is
directly due to of his lack of activity. He does not have impaired physical mobility or activity
intolerance that precludes exercise.
A 78-year-old patient is scheduled for transition to home after treatment for heart disease. The
patient's spouse, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, plans to care for the patient
at home. The spouse says that their grown children, who live nearby, will help. The best
approach to discharge planning is to:
1. Arrange nursing home placement for the couple.
2. Consult the spouse's healthcare provider about the spouse's ability to care for the patient.
3. Contact the children to ascertain their commitment to help.
4. Discuss community resources with the spouse and offer to make referrals. - 4. Discuss
community resources with the spouse and offer to make referrals.
A medical-surgical nurse, who is caring for a patient with a new diagnosis of cancer, observes
the patient becoming angry with the physicians and nursing staff. The best approach to diffuse
the emotionally charged discussion is to:
1. Allow the patient and family members time to be alone.
2. Arrange time for the patient to speak with another patient with cancer.
Verified Questions and Answers
A 30-year old patient has been diagnosed with advanced ovarian cancer. The patient says, "This
is all my fault." Which of Kubler-Ross's five stages of grief is the patient probably experiencing?
A.Denial
B.Anger
C.Depression
D.Acceptance - B. The patient is experiencing the stage of anger. People grieve individually and
may not go through all stages, but most go through at least 2 stages. Kubler-Ross's 5 stages of
grief include:
Denial: Refusal to believe, confused, stunned, detached.
Anger: Directed inward (self-blame) or outward.
Bargaining: If - then thinking. ("If I go to church, then I will heal.")
Depression: Sad, withdrawn.
Acceptance: Resolution.
A 50-year-old male with a diagnosis of leukemia is responding poorly to treatment. He is tearful
and trying
to express his feelings, but he is having diffi culty. The nurse should fi rst:
A. tell him that she will leave for now but she will be back.
B. offer to call pastoral care.
C. ask if he would like her to sit with him while he collects his thoughts.
D. tell him that she can understand how he is feeling. - C. ask if he would like her to sit with him
while he collects his thoughts.
,Rationale: The patient needs to feel that people are concerned with his situation. Option A
is incorrect because leaving the patient doesn't show acceptance of his feelings. Option B is
incorrect because offering to call pastoral care may be helpful for some patients but should be
done after the nurse has spent time with the patient. Option D is incorrect because telling the
patient that she understands how he's feeling is inappropriate because it doesn't help him
express his feelings.
A 55-year-old black male is found to have a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during a work site
health
screening. What should the nurse do?
A. Consider this to be a normal finding for his age and race.
B. Recommend he have his blood pressure rechecked in 1 year.
C. Recommend he have his blood pressure rechecked within 2 weeks.
D. Recommend he go to the emergency department for further evaluation. - C. Recommend he
have his blood pressure rechecked within 2 weeks.
Rationale: A BP of 150/90 mm Hg should be rechecked within 2 weeks according to
current recommendations. If confirmed, assessment and treatment should be initiated by the
practitioner.
Option A is incorrect because although hypertension is more prevalent among blacks, a BP of
150/90 mm Hg isn't considered normal. Option B is incorrect because a person with a BP
of 150/90 mm Hg shouldn't wait as long as 1 year to have it rechecked.
Option D is incorrect because he doesn't need to be treated on an emergency basis, but he
should have his BP monitored.
A 60-year-old male patient is suspected of having coronary artery disease. Which noninvasive
diagnostic
method would the nurse expect to be ordered to evaluate cardiac changes?
A. Cardiac biopsy
,B. Cardiac catheterization
C. MRI
D. Pericardiocentesis - C. MRI
Rationale: MRI is a noninvasive procedure that aids in the diagnosis and detection of thoracic
aortic aneurysm and evaluation of coronary artery disease, pericardial disease, and cardiac
masses.
Cardiac biopsy (Option A), cardiac catheterization (Option B), and pericardiocentesis (Option D)
are invasive
techniques used to evaluate cardiac changes.
A 66-year-old patient has marked dyspnea at rest, is thin, and uses accessory muscles to
breathe. He is
tachypneic, with a prolonged expiratory phase. He has no cough. He leans forward with his arms
braced on his
knees to support his chest and shoulders for breathing. This patient has signs and symptoms of
which respiratory
disorder?
A. ARDS
B. Asthma
C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
D. Emphysema - D. Emphysema
Rationale: These are classic signs and symptoms of a patient with emphysema. Patients with
ARDS (Option A) are acutely short of breath and require emergency care; those with asthma
(option B) are also acutely short of breath during an attack and appear very frightened. Patients
with chronic obstructive bronchitis (Option C) appear bloated and cyanotic
, A 68-year old man with mild COPD refuses to exercise because he tires easily. He spends most of
every day sitting in a chair watching television. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A.Ineffective health maintenance
B.Impaired physical mobility
C.Risk for disuse syndrome
D.Activity intolerance - C. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a person who is able to
exercise but remains sedentary is risk of disuse syndrome because the patient is putting himself
at risk for the development of circulatory impairment and muscle atrophy. Failure to exercise
may also exacerbate his condition. While his health maintenance may be ineffective, it is
directly due to of his lack of activity. He does not have impaired physical mobility or activity
intolerance that precludes exercise.
A 78-year-old patient is scheduled for transition to home after treatment for heart disease. The
patient's spouse, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, plans to care for the patient
at home. The spouse says that their grown children, who live nearby, will help. The best
approach to discharge planning is to:
1. Arrange nursing home placement for the couple.
2. Consult the spouse's healthcare provider about the spouse's ability to care for the patient.
3. Contact the children to ascertain their commitment to help.
4. Discuss community resources with the spouse and offer to make referrals. - 4. Discuss
community resources with the spouse and offer to make referrals.
A medical-surgical nurse, who is caring for a patient with a new diagnosis of cancer, observes
the patient becoming angry with the physicians and nursing staff. The best approach to diffuse
the emotionally charged discussion is to:
1. Allow the patient and family members time to be alone.
2. Arrange time for the patient to speak with another patient with cancer.
