NR565/ NR 565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY CARE OF THE
FUNDAMENTALS EXAM | QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS (/
2026 UPDATE)- CHAMBERLAIN 100% CORRECT ALREADY GRADED
A+
1) A patient is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which electrolyte
imbalance should the nurse monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale:
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases renal excretion of sodium and potassium.
Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect and can cause arrhythmias, muscle
weakness, and fatigue. Electrolytes should be monitored regularly.
2) A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which is the primary
action?
A. Stimulates insulin release
B. Decreases hepatic glucose production
C. Increases glucose absorption
D. Enhances glycogen breakdown
Rationale:
Metformin reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, lowering fasting glucose. It does not
stimulate insulin release, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Common side
effects include GI upset and rare lactic acidosis.
,3) A patient is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect requires immediate
intervention?
A. Dry cough
B. Hypotension
C. Angioedema
D. Hyperkalemia
Rationale:
Angioedema is a potentially life-threatening reaction to ACE inhibitors like
lisinopril. It presents with facial or airway swelling and requires immediate
discontinuation and treatment.
4) Which statement is correct about beta-blockers?
A. They increase heart rate
B. They stimulate renin release
C. They decrease myocardial oxygen demand
D. They cause bronchodilation
Rationale:
Beta-blockers reduce heart rate, contractility, and blood pressure, decreasing
myocardial oxygen demand. Non-selective beta-blockers can cause
bronchoconstriction; they do not increase heart rate.
5) A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.2. Which action is appropriate?
A. Continue current dose
B. Increase the dose
C. Hold the dose and notify provider
D. Administer vitamin B12
Rationale:
An INR >5 indicates high bleeding risk. The nurse should hold the dose and
contact the provider. Vitamin K may be administered depending on protocol.
,6) Which adverse effect is most concerning for a patient on digoxin?
A. Bradycardia
B. Headache
C. Visual disturbances (yellow halos)
D. Constipation
Rationale:
Digoxin toxicity presents with visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting, and
arrhythmias. Monitoring serum levels and renal function is essential.
7) A patient is prescribed albuterol for asthma. Which statement is correct?
A. It is a long-acting beta-blocker
B. It is a short-acting beta-2 agonist
C. It inhibits bronchial smooth muscle relaxation
D. It causes hypotension
Rationale:
Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that relaxes bronchial smooth
muscle, providing rapid relief of asthma symptoms. Tachycardia and tremor are
common side effects.
8) Which lab value is most important to monitor in a patient taking heparin?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Creatinine
D. Sodium
Rationale:
Heparin prolongs activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Monitoring
ensures therapeutic anticoagulation and prevents bleeding complications. INR is
monitored for warfarin, not heparin.
9) A patient on vancomycin develops red rash and hypotension during infusion.
What is the likely reaction?
, A. Anaphylaxis
B. Red man syndrome
C. Serum sickness
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Rationale:
Red man syndrome is an infusion-related reaction causing flushing, rash, and
hypotension. Slowing the infusion and premedicating with antihistamines can
prevent recurrence.
10) Which medication class is preferred for initial management of type 2
diabetes?
A. Biguanides
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Thiazolidinediones
D. Insulin
Rationale:
Biguanides (metformin) are first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes due to efficacy,
safety, weight neutrality, and cardiovascular benefits. Sulfonylureas and insulin are
second-line depending on glycemic control.
11) A patient taking lithium for bipolar disorder reports nausea, vomiting, and
tremor. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Early lithium toxicity
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Dehydration
Rationale:
Early lithium toxicity presents with GI upset, tremor, and lethargy. Lithium has
a narrow therapeutic index; serum levels should be checked, and dosage adjusted
accordingly.
FUNDAMENTALS EXAM | QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS (/
2026 UPDATE)- CHAMBERLAIN 100% CORRECT ALREADY GRADED
A+
1) A patient is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which electrolyte
imbalance should the nurse monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale:
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases renal excretion of sodium and potassium.
Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect and can cause arrhythmias, muscle
weakness, and fatigue. Electrolytes should be monitored regularly.
2) A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which is the primary
action?
A. Stimulates insulin release
B. Decreases hepatic glucose production
C. Increases glucose absorption
D. Enhances glycogen breakdown
Rationale:
Metformin reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, lowering fasting glucose. It does not
stimulate insulin release, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Common side
effects include GI upset and rare lactic acidosis.
,3) A patient is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect requires immediate
intervention?
A. Dry cough
B. Hypotension
C. Angioedema
D. Hyperkalemia
Rationale:
Angioedema is a potentially life-threatening reaction to ACE inhibitors like
lisinopril. It presents with facial or airway swelling and requires immediate
discontinuation and treatment.
4) Which statement is correct about beta-blockers?
A. They increase heart rate
B. They stimulate renin release
C. They decrease myocardial oxygen demand
D. They cause bronchodilation
Rationale:
Beta-blockers reduce heart rate, contractility, and blood pressure, decreasing
myocardial oxygen demand. Non-selective beta-blockers can cause
bronchoconstriction; they do not increase heart rate.
5) A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.2. Which action is appropriate?
A. Continue current dose
B. Increase the dose
C. Hold the dose and notify provider
D. Administer vitamin B12
Rationale:
An INR >5 indicates high bleeding risk. The nurse should hold the dose and
contact the provider. Vitamin K may be administered depending on protocol.
,6) Which adverse effect is most concerning for a patient on digoxin?
A. Bradycardia
B. Headache
C. Visual disturbances (yellow halos)
D. Constipation
Rationale:
Digoxin toxicity presents with visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting, and
arrhythmias. Monitoring serum levels and renal function is essential.
7) A patient is prescribed albuterol for asthma. Which statement is correct?
A. It is a long-acting beta-blocker
B. It is a short-acting beta-2 agonist
C. It inhibits bronchial smooth muscle relaxation
D. It causes hypotension
Rationale:
Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that relaxes bronchial smooth
muscle, providing rapid relief of asthma symptoms. Tachycardia and tremor are
common side effects.
8) Which lab value is most important to monitor in a patient taking heparin?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Creatinine
D. Sodium
Rationale:
Heparin prolongs activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Monitoring
ensures therapeutic anticoagulation and prevents bleeding complications. INR is
monitored for warfarin, not heparin.
9) A patient on vancomycin develops red rash and hypotension during infusion.
What is the likely reaction?
, A. Anaphylaxis
B. Red man syndrome
C. Serum sickness
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Rationale:
Red man syndrome is an infusion-related reaction causing flushing, rash, and
hypotension. Slowing the infusion and premedicating with antihistamines can
prevent recurrence.
10) Which medication class is preferred for initial management of type 2
diabetes?
A. Biguanides
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Thiazolidinediones
D. Insulin
Rationale:
Biguanides (metformin) are first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes due to efficacy,
safety, weight neutrality, and cardiovascular benefits. Sulfonylureas and insulin are
second-line depending on glycemic control.
11) A patient taking lithium for bipolar disorder reports nausea, vomiting, and
tremor. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Early lithium toxicity
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Dehydration
Rationale:
Early lithium toxicity presents with GI upset, tremor, and lethargy. Lithium has
a narrow therapeutic index; serum levels should be checked, and dosage adjusted
accordingly.
