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NUR 2755 / MDC IV FINAL EXAM (2026) RASMUSSEN –
MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE IV | 120 NURSING QUESTIONS
WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS & RATIONALES ALREADY
GRADED A+
1. A patient admitted with septic shock is started on norepinephrine infusion.
Which nursing assessment is priority?
A. Monitor urine output hourly
B. Assess bowel sounds every shift
C. Record daily weight
D. Check capillary refill once a day
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Norepinephrine improves perfusion; urine output is the best
indicator of organ perfusion in shock.
2. A burn patient with 35% TBSA burns develops hoarseness and stridor.
What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Prepare for emergent intubation
B. Administer bronchodilator
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C. Place patient in high Fowler’s position
D. Start IV fluids immediately
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Airway compromise is imminent with upper airway burns;
intubation is priority.
3. A trauma patient with multiple fractures has sudden dyspnea, chest pain,
and petechiae on chest. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Fat embolism syndrome
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pneumothorax
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fat embolism occurs after long bone fractures, presenting with
dyspnea and petechiae.
4. A patient with a spinal cord injury at T4 develops sudden hypertension,
headache, and diaphoresis. What is the priority action?
A. Place in high Fowler’s position
B. Increase IV fluids
C. Administer beta-blocker
D. Lower head of the bed
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Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia requires immediate elevation of HOB to
reduce BP and ICP risk.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with severe hypovolemic shock. Which
intervention is most important?
A. Begin oxygen therapy and start fluid resuscitation
B. Apply warming blankets
C. Offer oral fluids
D. Give prophylactic antibiotics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oxygen and rapid fluid replacement are first-line management
for hypovolemic shock.
6. A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation with PEEP.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Crackles on auscultation
B. PaO₂ of 75 mmHg
C. Blood pressure drop with tachycardia
D. Increased respiratory secretions
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Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High PEEP may cause barotrauma or hypotension due to
reduced venous return; requires prompt action.
7. A patient in cardiogenic shock is prescribed dobutamine. Which effect is
expected?
A. Increased myocardial contractility and cardiac output
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction
D. Reduced preload and afterload
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dobutamine is an inotropic agent that increases contractility and
cardiac output.
8. A nurse evaluates a patient with third-degree burns. Which finding is
expected?
A. Severe pain and blistering
B. Charred, leathery skin with little to no pain
C. Redness and intact skin
D. Moist, pink wounds with blanching
NUR 2755 / MDC IV FINAL EXAM (2026) RASMUSSEN –
MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE IV | 120 NURSING QUESTIONS
WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS & RATIONALES ALREADY
GRADED A+
1. A patient admitted with septic shock is started on norepinephrine infusion.
Which nursing assessment is priority?
A. Monitor urine output hourly
B. Assess bowel sounds every shift
C. Record daily weight
D. Check capillary refill once a day
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Norepinephrine improves perfusion; urine output is the best
indicator of organ perfusion in shock.
2. A burn patient with 35% TBSA burns develops hoarseness and stridor.
What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Prepare for emergent intubation
B. Administer bronchodilator
,2|Page
C. Place patient in high Fowler’s position
D. Start IV fluids immediately
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Airway compromise is imminent with upper airway burns;
intubation is priority.
3. A trauma patient with multiple fractures has sudden dyspnea, chest pain,
and petechiae on chest. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Fat embolism syndrome
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pneumothorax
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fat embolism occurs after long bone fractures, presenting with
dyspnea and petechiae.
4. A patient with a spinal cord injury at T4 develops sudden hypertension,
headache, and diaphoresis. What is the priority action?
A. Place in high Fowler’s position
B. Increase IV fluids
C. Administer beta-blocker
D. Lower head of the bed
,3|Page
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia requires immediate elevation of HOB to
reduce BP and ICP risk.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with severe hypovolemic shock. Which
intervention is most important?
A. Begin oxygen therapy and start fluid resuscitation
B. Apply warming blankets
C. Offer oral fluids
D. Give prophylactic antibiotics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oxygen and rapid fluid replacement are first-line management
for hypovolemic shock.
6. A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation with PEEP.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Crackles on auscultation
B. PaO₂ of 75 mmHg
C. Blood pressure drop with tachycardia
D. Increased respiratory secretions
, 4|Page
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High PEEP may cause barotrauma or hypotension due to
reduced venous return; requires prompt action.
7. A patient in cardiogenic shock is prescribed dobutamine. Which effect is
expected?
A. Increased myocardial contractility and cardiac output
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction
D. Reduced preload and afterload
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dobutamine is an inotropic agent that increases contractility and
cardiac output.
8. A nurse evaluates a patient with third-degree burns. Which finding is
expected?
A. Severe pain and blistering
B. Charred, leathery skin with little to no pain
C. Redness and intact skin
D. Moist, pink wounds with blanching
