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ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM RETAKE 2026 | LATEST
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS &
DETAILED RATIONALES, ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Tinnitus
B. Mild nausea
C. Injection site pain
D. Fatigue
Answer: A. Tinnitus
Rationale: Vancomycin is ototoxic and nephrotoxic. Tinnitus indicates
possible damage to cranial nerve VIII. This is a priority finding, while
nausea, injection site discomfort, and fatigue are expected but less urgent.
2. A client with COPD is admitted with shortness of breath. Which
oxygen delivery method is safest?
A. Nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
D. Venturi mask at 100% O₂
Answer: B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
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Rationale: COPD patients rely on hypoxic drive. High oxygen
concentrations can suppress respiratory effort. A low-flow nasal cannula
maintains adequate oxygenation without eliminating hypoxic drive.
3. A nurse is teaching about warfarin. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding?
A. “I will increase leafy greens to help my blood clot.”
B. “I need to have my INR checked regularly.”
C. “I should take aspirin for headaches while on this medication.”
D. “I will stop taking it if I bruise easily.”
Answer: B. “I need to have my INR checked regularly.”
Rationale: Warfarin requires INR monitoring (goal: 2–3 for most
conditions). Leafy greens (vitamin K) must be consistent, aspirin increases
bleeding risk, and bruising should be reported but not cause self-
discontinuation.
4. A client with schizophrenia reports hearing voices telling him to hurt
others. What is the nurse’s priority?
A. Provide a quiet environment
B. Ask about the content of the voices
C. Distract the client with activities
D. Offer PRN antipsychotic medication
Answer: B. Ask about the content of the voices
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Rationale: Safety is the priority. Assessing hallucinations for command
content helps determine the risk of harm to self or others before further
interventions.
5. A nurse prepares to administer digoxin. Which finding requires
holding the medication?
A. Apical heart rate 58/min
B. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
C. BP 138/86 mmHg
D. O₂ sat 95%
Answer: A. Apical heart rate 58/min
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld if the apical HR <60 bpm due to risk
of bradycardia and toxicity. Potassium within normal range, normal O₂, and
stable BP are not contraindications.
6. A client has chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin. Which action is
priority?
A. Administer morphine sulfate
B. Increase IV fluids
C. Apply warm compresses
D. Ambulate to relieve discomfort
Answer: A. Administer morphine sulfate
Rationale: Unrelieved chest pain after nitroglycerin may indicate
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myocardial infarction. Morphine reduces pain, decreases preload, and
reduces myocardial oxygen demand.
7. A nurse is teaching a client with a new ileostomy. Which statement
shows correct understanding?
A. “My stoma should be purple or black.”
B. “I should expect liquid stool drainage.”
C. “Gas is common and indicates a blockage.”
D. “I will limit my fluid intake to prevent leakage.”
Answer: B. “I should expect liquid stool drainage.”
Rationale: Ileostomy output is liquid and continuous. A purple/black stoma
indicates ischemia, not normal. Gas is expected, but not a sign of blockage.
Fluid intake should be increased, not restricted.
8. Which newborn assessment requires immediate intervention?
A. Irregular respirations at 40 breaths/min
B. Heart murmur heard on auscultation
C. Nasal flaring and intercostal retractions
D. Positive Babinski reflex
Answer: C. Nasal flaring and intercostal retractions
Rationale: These are signs of respiratory distress and require prompt
intervention. Irregular breathing is normal in newborns, murmurs may
resolve, and a Babinski reflex is expected until ~1 year.
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM RETAKE 2026 | LATEST
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS &
DETAILED RATIONALES, ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Tinnitus
B. Mild nausea
C. Injection site pain
D. Fatigue
Answer: A. Tinnitus
Rationale: Vancomycin is ototoxic and nephrotoxic. Tinnitus indicates
possible damage to cranial nerve VIII. This is a priority finding, while
nausea, injection site discomfort, and fatigue are expected but less urgent.
2. A client with COPD is admitted with shortness of breath. Which
oxygen delivery method is safest?
A. Nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
D. Venturi mask at 100% O₂
Answer: B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
,2|Page
Rationale: COPD patients rely on hypoxic drive. High oxygen
concentrations can suppress respiratory effort. A low-flow nasal cannula
maintains adequate oxygenation without eliminating hypoxic drive.
3. A nurse is teaching about warfarin. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding?
A. “I will increase leafy greens to help my blood clot.”
B. “I need to have my INR checked regularly.”
C. “I should take aspirin for headaches while on this medication.”
D. “I will stop taking it if I bruise easily.”
Answer: B. “I need to have my INR checked regularly.”
Rationale: Warfarin requires INR monitoring (goal: 2–3 for most
conditions). Leafy greens (vitamin K) must be consistent, aspirin increases
bleeding risk, and bruising should be reported but not cause self-
discontinuation.
4. A client with schizophrenia reports hearing voices telling him to hurt
others. What is the nurse’s priority?
A. Provide a quiet environment
B. Ask about the content of the voices
C. Distract the client with activities
D. Offer PRN antipsychotic medication
Answer: B. Ask about the content of the voices
,3|Page
Rationale: Safety is the priority. Assessing hallucinations for command
content helps determine the risk of harm to self or others before further
interventions.
5. A nurse prepares to administer digoxin. Which finding requires
holding the medication?
A. Apical heart rate 58/min
B. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
C. BP 138/86 mmHg
D. O₂ sat 95%
Answer: A. Apical heart rate 58/min
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld if the apical HR <60 bpm due to risk
of bradycardia and toxicity. Potassium within normal range, normal O₂, and
stable BP are not contraindications.
6. A client has chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin. Which action is
priority?
A. Administer morphine sulfate
B. Increase IV fluids
C. Apply warm compresses
D. Ambulate to relieve discomfort
Answer: A. Administer morphine sulfate
Rationale: Unrelieved chest pain after nitroglycerin may indicate
, 4|Page
myocardial infarction. Morphine reduces pain, decreases preload, and
reduces myocardial oxygen demand.
7. A nurse is teaching a client with a new ileostomy. Which statement
shows correct understanding?
A. “My stoma should be purple or black.”
B. “I should expect liquid stool drainage.”
C. “Gas is common and indicates a blockage.”
D. “I will limit my fluid intake to prevent leakage.”
Answer: B. “I should expect liquid stool drainage.”
Rationale: Ileostomy output is liquid and continuous. A purple/black stoma
indicates ischemia, not normal. Gas is expected, but not a sign of blockage.
Fluid intake should be increased, not restricted.
8. Which newborn assessment requires immediate intervention?
A. Irregular respirations at 40 breaths/min
B. Heart murmur heard on auscultation
C. Nasal flaring and intercostal retractions
D. Positive Babinski reflex
Answer: C. Nasal flaring and intercostal retractions
Rationale: These are signs of respiratory distress and require prompt
intervention. Irregular breathing is normal in newborns, murmurs may
resolve, and a Babinski reflex is expected until ~1 year.
