HESI DOSAGE CALCULATIONS & PHARMACOLOGY FINAL
EXAM 2026 | 200 VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
ANSWERS, ALREADY GRADED A+
1. The provider prescribes ceftriaxone 1 g IV every 12 hr. The
pharmacy sends a vial labeled ceftriaxone 2 g/20 mL. How many mL
should the nurse administer per dose?
A. 5 mL
B. 10 mL
C. 15 mL
D. 20 mL
Answer: B. 10 mL
Rationale: Desired = 1 g; Supply = 2 g/20 mL → 1 g/10 mL. Correct dose =
10 mL.
2. The provider orders heparin 5,000 units subcut every 8 hr. The vial is
labeled 10,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
A. 0.25 mL
B. 0.5 mL
C. 1 mL
D. 2 mL
Answer: B. 0.5 mL
Rationale: Desired = 5,000 units; Supply = 10,000 units/1 mL → 5,000
units/0.5 mL.
3. A client prescribed digoxin has a serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L.
Which action should the nurse take?
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A. Administer the digoxin as prescribed
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give potassium-wasting diuretic
D. Double the digoxin dose
Answer: B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases risk of digoxin toxicity (arrhythmias,
visual disturbances).
4. The provider orders vancomycin 750 mg IV every 12 hr. The
medication is supplied as 1 g/200 mL premixed bag. How many mL
should the nurse administer per dose?
A. 75 mL
B. 100 mL
C. 150 mL
D. 200 mL
Answer: C. 150 mL
Rationale: Desired = 750 mg; Supply = 1,000 mg/200 mL → 750 mg/150
mL.
5. A client on warfarin has an INR of 5.2. Which action should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Administer the next dose
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Administer aspirin
D. Encourage green leafy vegetables
Answer: B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale: Therapeutic INR is 2–3. An INR > 5 is dangerously high and
requires holding dose + possible vitamin K.
6. A nurse prepares to administer 1,200 mL of IV fluid over 10 hr using
an infusion pump. What rate should be set (mL/hr)?
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A. 100 mL/hr
B. 110 mL/hr
C. 120 mL/hr
D. 130 mL/hr
Answer: C. 120 mL/hr
Rationale: 1,200 ÷ 10 = 120 mL/hr.
7. A client is prescribed morphine 2 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for pain.
The vial is labeled 10 mg/2 mL. How many mL should the nurse
administer per dose?
A. 0.2 mL
B. 0.3 mL
C. 0.4 mL
D. 0.5 mL
Answer: C. 0.4 mL
Rationale: Desired = 2 mg; Supply = 10 mg/2 mL → 1 mg/0.2 mL → 2
mg/0.4 mL.
8. The provider prescribes amoxicillin 500 mg PO every 8 hr. Available:
250 mg capsules. How many capsules should the nurse give per dose?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B. 2
Rationale: Desired = 500 mg; Supply = 250 mg per capsule → 500/250 = 2
capsules.
9. A client receiving insulin lispro asks when to eat after injection. What
is the best response?
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A. “You should eat immediately after injection.”
B. “Wait 30 minutes before eating.”
C. “Take it at bedtime.”
D. “Skip a meal if you’re not hungry.”
Answer: A. You should eat immediately after injection.
Rationale: Lispro is rapid-acting; onset is 15 minutes. Meals should be
eaten right after injection to avoid hypoglycemia.
10. A client prescribed gentamicin should be monitored for which
serious adverse effect?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Constipation
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: A. Nephrotoxicity
Rationale: Gentamicin (aminoglycoside) can cause kidney damage and
ototoxicity. Monitoring BUN/creatinine is essential.
11. The provider orders furosemide 40 mg IV push once daily. The vial
is labeled 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
A. 2 mL
B. 3 mL
C. 4 mL
D. 5 mL
Answer: C. 4 mL
Rationale: Desired = 40 mg; Supply = 10 mg/1 mL → 40 ÷ 10 = 4 mL.
12. A client prescribed phenytoin has a serum level of 25 mcg/mL.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose as ordered
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Encourage increased protein intake