NR 567/NR567 Advanced Pharmacology for the AGACNP –
Midterm Exam Review (2025/2026, Chamberlain) | 150 Verified
Questions & Correct Answers | Grade A
Q1: What is the primary determinant of drug absorption in the small intestine?
Correct Answer: Lipid solubility – highly lipophilic drugs cross membranes more readily.
Q2: A patient on warfarin is started on TMP-SMX. What is the risk?
Correct Answer: Increased bleeding risk – TMP-SMX inhibits warfarin metabolism,
raising INR.
Q3: Which antihypertensive is first-line for a Black patient without CKD?
Correct Answer: Thiazide diuretics or calcium channel blockers – more effective than
ACE/ARB in this population.
Q4: What is the mechanism of action of amiodarone?
Correct Answer: Class III antiarrhythmic – prolongs repolarization by blocking potassium
channels.
Q5: Which antibiotic is safest in pregnancy?
Correct Answer: Penicillin – does not cross placenta in harmful concentrations.
Q6: What is the black box warning for fluoroquinolones?
Correct Answer: Tendon rupture and peripheral neuropathy.
Q7: Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
Correct Answer: Lispro (Humalog) – rapid acting, onset ~15 minutes.
,Q8: Which drug can cause lactic acidosis in patients with renal insufficiency?
Correct Answer: Metformin.
Q9: Which opioid antagonist is used in opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: Naloxone.
Q10: Which vasopressor is first-line in septic shock?
Correct Answer: Norepinephrine.
Q11: Which anticoagulant requires monitoring with aPTT?
Correct Answer: Heparin.
Q12: Which anticoagulant is monitored with INR?
Correct Answer: Warfarin.
Q13: What electrolyte imbalance increases digoxin toxicity risk?
Correct Answer: Hypokalemia.
Q14: Which drug is the preferred initial therapy for type 2 diabetes?
Correct Answer: Metformin.
Q15: Which class of antihypertensives is contraindicated in pregnancy?
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitors and ARBs.
Q16: What is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers?
Correct Answer: Inhibit calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle → vasodilation.
Q17: Which drug is first-line for acute asthma exacerbation?
, Correct Answer: Short-acting beta-agonist (Albuterol).
Q18: Which medication is an aldosterone antagonist used in heart failure?
Correct Answer: Spironolactone.
Q19: Which antibiotic has a risk of “Red Man Syndrome”?
Correct Answer: Vancomycin.
Q20: What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose?
Correct Answer: Flumazenil.
Q21: Which statin has the highest risk of rhabdomyolysis when combined with
gemfibrozil?
Correct Answer: Simvastatin.
Q22: Which opioid has a ceiling effect on respiratory depression?
Correct Answer: Buprenorphine.
Q23: What drug is first-line for status epilepticus?
Correct Answer: Lorazepam (IV benzodiazepine).
Q24: Which drug class is first-line for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitors (or ARBs if ACE intolerant).
Q25: What is the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?
Correct Answer: Stimulate insulin release from pancreatic beta cells.
Midterm Exam Review (2025/2026, Chamberlain) | 150 Verified
Questions & Correct Answers | Grade A
Q1: What is the primary determinant of drug absorption in the small intestine?
Correct Answer: Lipid solubility – highly lipophilic drugs cross membranes more readily.
Q2: A patient on warfarin is started on TMP-SMX. What is the risk?
Correct Answer: Increased bleeding risk – TMP-SMX inhibits warfarin metabolism,
raising INR.
Q3: Which antihypertensive is first-line for a Black patient without CKD?
Correct Answer: Thiazide diuretics or calcium channel blockers – more effective than
ACE/ARB in this population.
Q4: What is the mechanism of action of amiodarone?
Correct Answer: Class III antiarrhythmic – prolongs repolarization by blocking potassium
channels.
Q5: Which antibiotic is safest in pregnancy?
Correct Answer: Penicillin – does not cross placenta in harmful concentrations.
Q6: What is the black box warning for fluoroquinolones?
Correct Answer: Tendon rupture and peripheral neuropathy.
Q7: Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
Correct Answer: Lispro (Humalog) – rapid acting, onset ~15 minutes.
,Q8: Which drug can cause lactic acidosis in patients with renal insufficiency?
Correct Answer: Metformin.
Q9: Which opioid antagonist is used in opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: Naloxone.
Q10: Which vasopressor is first-line in septic shock?
Correct Answer: Norepinephrine.
Q11: Which anticoagulant requires monitoring with aPTT?
Correct Answer: Heparin.
Q12: Which anticoagulant is monitored with INR?
Correct Answer: Warfarin.
Q13: What electrolyte imbalance increases digoxin toxicity risk?
Correct Answer: Hypokalemia.
Q14: Which drug is the preferred initial therapy for type 2 diabetes?
Correct Answer: Metformin.
Q15: Which class of antihypertensives is contraindicated in pregnancy?
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitors and ARBs.
Q16: What is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers?
Correct Answer: Inhibit calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle → vasodilation.
Q17: Which drug is first-line for acute asthma exacerbation?
, Correct Answer: Short-acting beta-agonist (Albuterol).
Q18: Which medication is an aldosterone antagonist used in heart failure?
Correct Answer: Spironolactone.
Q19: Which antibiotic has a risk of “Red Man Syndrome”?
Correct Answer: Vancomycin.
Q20: What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose?
Correct Answer: Flumazenil.
Q21: Which statin has the highest risk of rhabdomyolysis when combined with
gemfibrozil?
Correct Answer: Simvastatin.
Q22: Which opioid has a ceiling effect on respiratory depression?
Correct Answer: Buprenorphine.
Q23: What drug is first-line for status epilepticus?
Correct Answer: Lorazepam (IV benzodiazepine).
Q24: Which drug class is first-line for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitors (or ARBs if ACE intolerant).
Q25: What is the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?
Correct Answer: Stimulate insulin release from pancreatic beta cells.
