NU372 Prep: Stroke Test Questions
and Revised Updated Answers 2025-
2026 Version.
Which of the following is accurate regarding a hemorrhagic stroke?
a) Main presenting symptom is an "exploding headache."
b) Functional recovery usually plateaus at 6 months.
c) One of the main presenting symptoms is numbness or weakness of the face.
d) It is caused by a large-artery thrombosis. - Answer a) Main presenting symptom is an
"exploding headache."
-
One of hemorrhagic stroke's main presenting symptom is an "exploding headache." In ischemic
stroke, functional recovery usually plateaus at 6 months; it may be caused by a large artery
thrombosis and may have a presenting symptom of numbness or weakness of the face.
A nurse is instructing the spouse of a client who suffered a stroke about the use of eating
devices the client will be using. During the teaching, the spouse starts to cry and states, "One
minute he is laughing, and the next he's crying; I just don't understand what's wrong with him."
Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
a) "Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually improves with time."
b) "You sound stressed; maybe using some stress management techniques will help."
c) "You seem upset, and it may be hard for you to focus on the teaching, I'll come back later."
d) "This behavior is common in clients with stroke. Which does your spouse do more often?
Laugh or cry?" - Answer a) "Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually
improves with time."
-
This is the most therapeutic and informative response. Often, most relatives of clients with
stroke handle the physical changes better than the emotional aspects of care. The family should
be prepared to expect occasional episodes of emotional lability. The client may laugh or cry
easily and may be irritable and demanding or depressed and confused. The nurse can explain to
the family that the client's laughter does not necessarily connote happiness, nor does crying
reflect sadness, and that emotional lability usually improves with time. The remaining responses
are nontherapeutic and do not address the spouse's concerns.
, b) A 40-year-old White woman
c) A 62-year-old White woman
d) A 28-year-old pregnant Black woman - Answer a) A 60-year-old Black man
-
The 60-year-old Black man has three risk factors: gender, age, and race. Black people have
almost twice the incidence of first stroke compared with White people.
A patient having an acute stroke with no other significant medical disorders has a blood glucose
level of 420 mg/dL. What significance does the hyperglycemia have for this patient?
a) The patient has new onset diabetes.
b) This is significant for poor neurologic outcomes.
c) The patient has developed diabetes insipidus due to the location of the stroke.
d) The patient has liver failure. - Answer b) This is significant for poor neurologic outcomes.
-
Hyperglycemia has been associated with poor neurologic outcomes in acute stroke and should
be treated if the blood glucose is above 140 mg/dL (Summers et al., 2009).
A client has suffered a stroke that has affected his speech. The physician has identified the client
as having expressive aphasia. Later in the day, the family asks the nurse to explain what this
means. The most accurate response would be aphasia that is:
a) characterized by an inability to comprehend the speech of others or to comprehend written
material.
b) nearly normal speech except for difficulty with finding singular words.
c) manifested as impaired repetition and speech riddled with letter substitutions, despite good
comprehension, and fluency.
d) characterized by an inability to communicate spontaneously with ease or translate thoughts
or ideas into meaningful speech or writing. - Answer d) characterized by an inability to
communicate spontaneously with ease or translate thoughts or ideas into meaningful speech or
writing.
-
Expressive or nonfluent aphasia is characterized by an inability to communicate spontaneously
with ease or translate thoughts or ideas into meaningful speech or writing. Conduction aphasia
and Revised Updated Answers 2025-
2026 Version.
Which of the following is accurate regarding a hemorrhagic stroke?
a) Main presenting symptom is an "exploding headache."
b) Functional recovery usually plateaus at 6 months.
c) One of the main presenting symptoms is numbness or weakness of the face.
d) It is caused by a large-artery thrombosis. - Answer a) Main presenting symptom is an
"exploding headache."
-
One of hemorrhagic stroke's main presenting symptom is an "exploding headache." In ischemic
stroke, functional recovery usually plateaus at 6 months; it may be caused by a large artery
thrombosis and may have a presenting symptom of numbness or weakness of the face.
A nurse is instructing the spouse of a client who suffered a stroke about the use of eating
devices the client will be using. During the teaching, the spouse starts to cry and states, "One
minute he is laughing, and the next he's crying; I just don't understand what's wrong with him."
Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
a) "Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually improves with time."
b) "You sound stressed; maybe using some stress management techniques will help."
c) "You seem upset, and it may be hard for you to focus on the teaching, I'll come back later."
d) "This behavior is common in clients with stroke. Which does your spouse do more often?
Laugh or cry?" - Answer a) "Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually
improves with time."
-
This is the most therapeutic and informative response. Often, most relatives of clients with
stroke handle the physical changes better than the emotional aspects of care. The family should
be prepared to expect occasional episodes of emotional lability. The client may laugh or cry
easily and may be irritable and demanding or depressed and confused. The nurse can explain to
the family that the client's laughter does not necessarily connote happiness, nor does crying
reflect sadness, and that emotional lability usually improves with time. The remaining responses
are nontherapeutic and do not address the spouse's concerns.
, b) A 40-year-old White woman
c) A 62-year-old White woman
d) A 28-year-old pregnant Black woman - Answer a) A 60-year-old Black man
-
The 60-year-old Black man has three risk factors: gender, age, and race. Black people have
almost twice the incidence of first stroke compared with White people.
A patient having an acute stroke with no other significant medical disorders has a blood glucose
level of 420 mg/dL. What significance does the hyperglycemia have for this patient?
a) The patient has new onset diabetes.
b) This is significant for poor neurologic outcomes.
c) The patient has developed diabetes insipidus due to the location of the stroke.
d) The patient has liver failure. - Answer b) This is significant for poor neurologic outcomes.
-
Hyperglycemia has been associated with poor neurologic outcomes in acute stroke and should
be treated if the blood glucose is above 140 mg/dL (Summers et al., 2009).
A client has suffered a stroke that has affected his speech. The physician has identified the client
as having expressive aphasia. Later in the day, the family asks the nurse to explain what this
means. The most accurate response would be aphasia that is:
a) characterized by an inability to comprehend the speech of others or to comprehend written
material.
b) nearly normal speech except for difficulty with finding singular words.
c) manifested as impaired repetition and speech riddled with letter substitutions, despite good
comprehension, and fluency.
d) characterized by an inability to communicate spontaneously with ease or translate thoughts
or ideas into meaningful speech or writing. - Answer d) characterized by an inability to
communicate spontaneously with ease or translate thoughts or ideas into meaningful speech or
writing.
-
Expressive or nonfluent aphasia is characterized by an inability to communicate spontaneously
with ease or translate thoughts or ideas into meaningful speech or writing. Conduction aphasia
