ATI PN Maternal Newborn Exam
2025/2026 – Actual Exam 65 Questions
with Verified Correct Answers and
Expert Explanations
1. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of
clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding? A. "A
water-soluble lubricant should be used with condoms." B. "A diaphragm can be inserted
up to 6 hours before intercourse." C. "Oral contraceptives increase the risk of blood
clots." D. "An IUD can be inserted immediately after childbirth."
A. "A water-soluble lubricant should be used with condoms."
Rationale: Water-soluble lubricants are recommended for use with condoms to prevent
breakage, unlike oil-based lubricants which can degrade latex. This statement indicates
correct understanding of safe condom use. Options B, C, and D contain inaccuracies:
diaphragms should not be inserted more than 2 hours prior, oral contraceptives do
increase clot risk but the statement is incomplete, and IUD insertion post-childbirth
requires specific timing.
2. A nurse is assisting with caring for a client who is postpartum. Which of the following
maternal characteristics should the nurse identify as the taking-in phase of maternal
postpartum adjustment? (Select all that apply.) A. The client is excited and talkative. B.
The client is independent with caring for the baby. C. The client requires assistance with
meeting basic needs. D. The client is eager to learn new tasks. E. The client is desiring to
take charge of their care.
A and C.
Rationale: The taking-in phase occurs in the first 1-2 days postpartum, characterized by
excitement and dependency on others for basic needs as the mother processes the birth.
Independence and eagerness to learn mark the taking-hold phase. This helps nurses tailor
support to the mother's emotional state.
3. A nurse is assisting with care for a client who is 1 day postpartum. The nurse is collecting
data for maternal adaptation and parent-infant bonding. Which of the following behaviors
by the client indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? (Select all that apply.) A.
Demonstrates apathy when the newborn cries. B. Touches the newborn's extremities first.
C. Calls the newborn by a nickname. D. Asks a family member to hold the newborn. E.
Changes the newborn's diaper without being asked.
A and B.
, Rationale: Apathy to cries suggests poor bonding, and touching extremities first indicates
avoidance of face-to-face contact, a bonding red flag. Nicknames, involving family, and
proactive care are positive signs. Early intervention promotes attachment and prevents
postpartum mood disorders.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The
nurse notes maternal exposure to rubella during pregnancy. After delivery, the nurse
should monitor the newborn for which of the following conditions? A. Transient
strabismus. B. Patent ductus arteriosus. C. Cataracts. D. Respiratory distress syndrome.
C. Cataracts.
Rationale: Congenital rubella syndrome includes cataracts, heart defects, and hearing loss
due to in utero viral damage. Strabismus is unrelated, PDA is a heart defect but not
primary here, and RDS is prematurity-related. Monitoring ensures early treatment.
5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about safety precautions to take when driving a car with a
client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following statements
should the nurse include? A. "Wear your seat belt under your abdomen." B. "Keep your
seat as far back from the dashboard as possible." C. "Use the shoulder harness only." D.
"Drive with windows open for fresh air."
B. "Keep your seat as far back from the dashboard as possible."
Rationale: Positioning the seat back reduces abdominal impact in a crash. Seat belts
should cross over the shoulder and lap above the belly; under-belly is unsafe. Shoulder-
only or open windows are irrelevant to safety.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 9 weeks of gestation and reports nausea in the
morning that continues until midafternoon. Which of the following interventions should
the nurse recommend? A. Eat a high-protein snack before bedtime. B. Drink ginger ale
throughout the day. C. Take prenatal vitamins at night. D. Avoid brushing teeth after
meals.
A. Eat a high-protein snack before bedtime.
Rationale: Protein stabilizes blood sugar, reducing nausea. Ginger ale may help but isn't
primary; vitamins on empty stomach worsen it; brushing teeth is unrelated.
7. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a patient following a cesarean birth. Which
of the following assessments is the nurse's priority? A. Parent-child attachment. B.
Amount of lochia. C. Patency of the IV catheter. D. Quality and quantity of urine.
D. Quality and quantity of urine.
2025/2026 – Actual Exam 65 Questions
with Verified Correct Answers and
Expert Explanations
1. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of
clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding? A. "A
water-soluble lubricant should be used with condoms." B. "A diaphragm can be inserted
up to 6 hours before intercourse." C. "Oral contraceptives increase the risk of blood
clots." D. "An IUD can be inserted immediately after childbirth."
A. "A water-soluble lubricant should be used with condoms."
Rationale: Water-soluble lubricants are recommended for use with condoms to prevent
breakage, unlike oil-based lubricants which can degrade latex. This statement indicates
correct understanding of safe condom use. Options B, C, and D contain inaccuracies:
diaphragms should not be inserted more than 2 hours prior, oral contraceptives do
increase clot risk but the statement is incomplete, and IUD insertion post-childbirth
requires specific timing.
2. A nurse is assisting with caring for a client who is postpartum. Which of the following
maternal characteristics should the nurse identify as the taking-in phase of maternal
postpartum adjustment? (Select all that apply.) A. The client is excited and talkative. B.
The client is independent with caring for the baby. C. The client requires assistance with
meeting basic needs. D. The client is eager to learn new tasks. E. The client is desiring to
take charge of their care.
A and C.
Rationale: The taking-in phase occurs in the first 1-2 days postpartum, characterized by
excitement and dependency on others for basic needs as the mother processes the birth.
Independence and eagerness to learn mark the taking-hold phase. This helps nurses tailor
support to the mother's emotional state.
3. A nurse is assisting with care for a client who is 1 day postpartum. The nurse is collecting
data for maternal adaptation and parent-infant bonding. Which of the following behaviors
by the client indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? (Select all that apply.) A.
Demonstrates apathy when the newborn cries. B. Touches the newborn's extremities first.
C. Calls the newborn by a nickname. D. Asks a family member to hold the newborn. E.
Changes the newborn's diaper without being asked.
A and B.
, Rationale: Apathy to cries suggests poor bonding, and touching extremities first indicates
avoidance of face-to-face contact, a bonding red flag. Nicknames, involving family, and
proactive care are positive signs. Early intervention promotes attachment and prevents
postpartum mood disorders.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The
nurse notes maternal exposure to rubella during pregnancy. After delivery, the nurse
should monitor the newborn for which of the following conditions? A. Transient
strabismus. B. Patent ductus arteriosus. C. Cataracts. D. Respiratory distress syndrome.
C. Cataracts.
Rationale: Congenital rubella syndrome includes cataracts, heart defects, and hearing loss
due to in utero viral damage. Strabismus is unrelated, PDA is a heart defect but not
primary here, and RDS is prematurity-related. Monitoring ensures early treatment.
5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about safety precautions to take when driving a car with a
client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following statements
should the nurse include? A. "Wear your seat belt under your abdomen." B. "Keep your
seat as far back from the dashboard as possible." C. "Use the shoulder harness only." D.
"Drive with windows open for fresh air."
B. "Keep your seat as far back from the dashboard as possible."
Rationale: Positioning the seat back reduces abdominal impact in a crash. Seat belts
should cross over the shoulder and lap above the belly; under-belly is unsafe. Shoulder-
only or open windows are irrelevant to safety.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 9 weeks of gestation and reports nausea in the
morning that continues until midafternoon. Which of the following interventions should
the nurse recommend? A. Eat a high-protein snack before bedtime. B. Drink ginger ale
throughout the day. C. Take prenatal vitamins at night. D. Avoid brushing teeth after
meals.
A. Eat a high-protein snack before bedtime.
Rationale: Protein stabilizes blood sugar, reducing nausea. Ginger ale may help but isn't
primary; vitamins on empty stomach worsen it; brushing teeth is unrelated.
7. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a patient following a cesarean birth. Which
of the following assessments is the nurse's priority? A. Parent-child attachment. B.
Amount of lochia. C. Patency of the IV catheter. D. Quality and quantity of urine.
D. Quality and quantity of urine.
