RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit 2025/2026 Premium Study Guide

Full-Length Mock Exam • Answer Key & Rationales • High-Yield Cheat Sheets Exam Instructions This is a full-length ATI Comprehensive Predictor Mock Exam designed to simulate the real testing experience. The exam includes 150 mixed-format questions covering fundamentals, pharmacology, medical-surgical, maternity, pediatrics, mental health, and leadership. Each question is followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale. Time limit: 3 hours Passing benchmark: 90% Answer carefully and review rationales to maximize learning Table of Contents 1. Exam Questions (Sample) 2. Answer Key with Rationales 3. High-Yield Cheat Sheets Q1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV furosemide. Which finding requires immediate intervention?  A. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L  B. Blood pressure 138/82 mmHg  C. Heart rate 88/min  D. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L Answer: A � � Rationale: Potassium 2.8 mEq/L is dangerously low, risking ventricular dysrhythmias. Immediate action is required. Q2. A client with COPD is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 6 L/min. Which action should the nurse take?  A. Continue therapy as prescribed  B. Lower to 2 L/min  C. Switch to non-rebreather mask  D. Encourage deep breathing exercises Answer: B � � Rationale: COPD clients should receive low-flow oxygen (1–3 L/min) to prevent suppression of their hypoxic respiratory drive. Q3. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement indicates correct understanding?  A. “I will eat more green leafy vegetables.”  B. “I will report any unusual bleeding.”  C. “I can take aspirin for headaches.”  D. “I do not need regular lab tests.” Answer: B � � Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk. Clients must report unusual bleeding immediately. Aspirin increases bleeding risk and should be avoided. Q4. Which client should the nurse assess first?  A. Post-op client reporting pain 6/10  B. Client with new onset confusion  C. Client scheduled for discharge  D. Client requesting PRN medication Answer: B � � Rationale: New confusion could indicate hypoxia, infection, or neurological decline, making this client the highest priority. Q5. A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with a boggy uterus. Which action is priority?  A. Administer oxytocin  B. Massage the fundus  C. Encourage ambulation  D. Start IV fluids Answer: B � � Rationale: Uterine atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Massaging the fundus is the first nursing action. Q6. A client on heparin infusion develops hematuria. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?  A. Vitamin K  B. Protamine sulfate  C. Atropine  D. Naloxone Answer: B � � Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin toxicity. Vitamin K is for warfarin overdose. Q7. Which action is appropriate when administering ear drops to a 2-year-old child?  A. Pull pinna up and back  B. Pull pinna down and back  C. Instill drops onto tympanic membrane  D. Warm drops in microwave Answer: B � � Rationale: For children under 3 years, the pinna should be pulled down and back to straighten the ear canal. Q8. A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client with DKA. Which finding should the nurse expect?  A. Serum glucose 95 mg/dL  B. Arterial pH 7.30  C. HCO₃ 24 mEq/L  D. Serum potassium 3.8 mEq/L Answer: B � � Rationale: DKA presents with metabolic acidosis (pH < 7.35, HCO₃ low) and hyperglycemia. Q9. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client prescribed lithium. Which statement requires further teaching?  A. “I will maintain consistent sodium intake.”  B. “I should drink 2–3 liters of fluid daily.”  C. “I will stop the medication if I feel fine.”  D. “I will report tremors or confusion.” Answer: C � � Rationale: Lithium must be taken continuously; abrupt discontinuation may cause relapse. Tremors/confusion may indicate toxicity.