D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse 2025
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
Correct Answer Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one
Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - Correct Answer Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - Correct Answer
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed
in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information
found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of
pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates
amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene? - Correct Answer Cri du chat syndrome (translated as
"cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry
often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can
present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - Correct Answer
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may
,D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse 2025
not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the
father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - Correct
Answer Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of
disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? -
Correct Answer Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the
most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - Correct Answer The
imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired
inflammation and wound healing? - Correct Answer The underlying chronic
illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the
body's reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? -
Correct Answer Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against
parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - Correct Answer Macrophages work by eating
or phagocytosing bacteria.
,D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse 2025
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - Correct Answer Helper
T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity
when considering the antigen? - Correct Answer Immunogenicity is
primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility? - Correct Answer The complement
pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? -
Correct Answer An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes
atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - Correct Answer
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g.,
tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and
athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection? - Correct Answer Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10
days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to
90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out
a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a
high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - Correct Answer Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
, D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse 2025
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - Correct Answer The results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased
risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop? - Correct Answer Asbestos exposure results
in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - Correct
Answer UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma
when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side
by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers
lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? -
Correct Answer Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon
cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure
control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - Correct Answer TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved
health outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse 2025
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
Correct Answer Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one
Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - Correct Answer Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - Correct Answer
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed
in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information
found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of
pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates
amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene? - Correct Answer Cri du chat syndrome (translated as
"cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry
often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can
present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - Correct Answer
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may
,D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse 2025
not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the
father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - Correct
Answer Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of
disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? -
Correct Answer Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the
most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - Correct Answer The
imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired
inflammation and wound healing? - Correct Answer The underlying chronic
illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the
body's reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? -
Correct Answer Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against
parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - Correct Answer Macrophages work by eating
or phagocytosing bacteria.
,D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse 2025
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - Correct Answer Helper
T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity
when considering the antigen? - Correct Answer Immunogenicity is
primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility? - Correct Answer The complement
pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? -
Correct Answer An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes
atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - Correct Answer
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g.,
tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and
athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection? - Correct Answer Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10
days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to
90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out
a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a
high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - Correct Answer Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
, D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice
Nurse 2025
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - Correct Answer The results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased
risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop? - Correct Answer Asbestos exposure results
in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - Correct
Answer UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma
when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side
by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers
lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? -
Correct Answer Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon
cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure
control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - Correct Answer TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved
health outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
