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NURS 615 Pharm Exam 1 – Maryville
University | Comprehensive Review with
Expert Strategies & Practice Questions
(Newest 2025/2026)
1. Prescribing and the Role of the APRN
1. According to the WHO, the first step in the rational prescribing process is:
A. Choose the treatment
B. Define the patient’s problem
C. Educate the patient
D. Monitor the treatment
Answer: B. Define the patient’s problem
Rationale: The WHO’s six-step prescribing process begins with identifying the
patient’s health issue to ensure appropriate treatment selection.
2. The WHO prescribing process emphasizes collaboration with the patient during which
step?
A. Define the patient’s problem
B. Specify the therapeutic objective
C. Choose the treatment
D. Educate the patient
Answer: C. Choose the treatment
Rationale: Collaboration with the patient during treatment selection ensures
shared decision-making and improves adherence.
3. Off-label prescribing refers to:
A. Using a drug for an FDA-approved indication
B. Prescribing a drug for an unapproved indication or dosage
C. Prescribing without a license
D. Using only generic drugs
Answer: B. Prescribing a drug for an unapproved indication or dosage
Rationale: Off-label use involves prescribing medications for indications,
dosages, or populations not approved by the FDA, which is legal but requires
caution.
4. The FDA regulates:
A. Individual practitioner prescribing practices
B. Drug approval and marketing
C. State-specific prescribing laws
D. Patient education protocols
Answer: B. Drug approval and marketing
, 2
Rationale: The FDA oversees drug safety, efficacy, and marketing but does not
regulate individual prescribing practices.
5. A Black Box Warning indicates:
A. A minor side effect of the drug
B. A contraindication due to serious risks
C. A recommendation for off-label use
D. A drug’s half-life
Answer: B. A contraindication due to serious risks
Rationale: A Black Box Warning is the FDA’s strongest warning, indicating
serious or life-threatening risks associated with a drug.
6. The purpose of monitoring in the WHO prescribing process is to:
A. Adjust the drug dosage immediately
B. Evaluate treatment effectiveness and safety
C. Change the therapeutic objective
D. Discontinue the drug
Answer: B. Evaluate treatment effectiveness and safety
Rationale: Monitoring ensures the treatment achieves the therapeutic objective
while minimizing adverse effects.
7. Bioequivalence is critical when prescribing:
A. Brand-name drugs only
B. Generic drugs
C. Controlled substances
D. Over-the-counter medications
Answer: B. Generic drugs
Rationale: Bioequivalence ensures generic drugs have the same efficacy and
safety as brand-name drugs, impacting cost-effective prescribing.
8. The mnemonic “I Can PresCribe A Drug” stands for:
A. Indications, Contraindications, Precautions, Cost, Adherence, Dosage
B. Interactions, Cost, Precautions, Contraindications, Age, Route
C. Indications, Compliance, Prescribing, Cost, Age, Dosage
D. Interactions, Contraindications, Pharmacokinetics, Cost, Adherence
Answer: A. Indications, Contraindications, Precautions, Cost, Adherence,
Dosage
Rationale: This mnemonic guides APRNs in considering key factors for rational
prescribing.
9. A legal requirement for prescribing controlled substances is:
A. A DEA registration number
B. A state medical license only
C. Patient consent forms
D. FDA approval for off-label use
Answer: A. A DEA registration number
Rationale: Prescribers must have a DEA number to prescribe controlled
substances, per federal law.
10. Patient education in the WHO prescribing process includes:
A. Discussing only the drug’s benefits
, 3
B. Explaining side effects, dosage, and adherence
C. Providing only written instructions
D. Avoiding discussion of adverse effects
Answer: B. Explaining side effects, dosage, and adherence
Rationale: Comprehensive patient education improves adherence and safety by
covering all aspects of the medication.
2. Pharmacodynamics
11. Pharmacodynamics refers to:
A. The movement of drugs through the body
B. The action of the drug on the body
C. The metabolism of drugs in the liver
D. The excretion of drugs by the kidneys
Answer: B. The action of the drug on the body
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body, including
mechanisms like receptor binding and therapeutic effects.
12. An agonist:
A. Blocks a receptor’s action
B. Mimics a receptor’s natural ligand
C. Reduces drug efficacy
D. Increases drug clearance
Answer: B. Mimics a receptor’s natural ligand
Rationale: Agonists bind to receptors and activate them, mimicking the effect of
natural substances like neurotransmitters.
13. An antagonist:
A. Enhances receptor activity
B. Blocks receptor activity
C. Increases drug potency
D. Prolongs drug half-life
Answer: B. Blocks receptor activity
Rationale: Antagonists bind to receptors without activating them, preventing
the action of agonists or natural ligands.
14. Drug affinity refers to:
A. The strength of a drug’s binding to a receptor
B. The drug’s therapeutic effect
C. The drug’s half-life
D. The drug’s metabolism rate
Answer: A. The strength of a drug’s binding to a receptor
Rationale: Affinity measures how tightly a drug binds to its receptor,
influencing its effectiveness.
NURS 615 Pharm Exam 1 – Maryville
University | Comprehensive Review with
Expert Strategies & Practice Questions
(Newest 2025/2026)
1. Prescribing and the Role of the APRN
1. According to the WHO, the first step in the rational prescribing process is:
A. Choose the treatment
B. Define the patient’s problem
C. Educate the patient
D. Monitor the treatment
Answer: B. Define the patient’s problem
Rationale: The WHO’s six-step prescribing process begins with identifying the
patient’s health issue to ensure appropriate treatment selection.
2. The WHO prescribing process emphasizes collaboration with the patient during which
step?
A. Define the patient’s problem
B. Specify the therapeutic objective
C. Choose the treatment
D. Educate the patient
Answer: C. Choose the treatment
Rationale: Collaboration with the patient during treatment selection ensures
shared decision-making and improves adherence.
3. Off-label prescribing refers to:
A. Using a drug for an FDA-approved indication
B. Prescribing a drug for an unapproved indication or dosage
C. Prescribing without a license
D. Using only generic drugs
Answer: B. Prescribing a drug for an unapproved indication or dosage
Rationale: Off-label use involves prescribing medications for indications,
dosages, or populations not approved by the FDA, which is legal but requires
caution.
4. The FDA regulates:
A. Individual practitioner prescribing practices
B. Drug approval and marketing
C. State-specific prescribing laws
D. Patient education protocols
Answer: B. Drug approval and marketing
, 2
Rationale: The FDA oversees drug safety, efficacy, and marketing but does not
regulate individual prescribing practices.
5. A Black Box Warning indicates:
A. A minor side effect of the drug
B. A contraindication due to serious risks
C. A recommendation for off-label use
D. A drug’s half-life
Answer: B. A contraindication due to serious risks
Rationale: A Black Box Warning is the FDA’s strongest warning, indicating
serious or life-threatening risks associated with a drug.
6. The purpose of monitoring in the WHO prescribing process is to:
A. Adjust the drug dosage immediately
B. Evaluate treatment effectiveness and safety
C. Change the therapeutic objective
D. Discontinue the drug
Answer: B. Evaluate treatment effectiveness and safety
Rationale: Monitoring ensures the treatment achieves the therapeutic objective
while minimizing adverse effects.
7. Bioequivalence is critical when prescribing:
A. Brand-name drugs only
B. Generic drugs
C. Controlled substances
D. Over-the-counter medications
Answer: B. Generic drugs
Rationale: Bioequivalence ensures generic drugs have the same efficacy and
safety as brand-name drugs, impacting cost-effective prescribing.
8. The mnemonic “I Can PresCribe A Drug” stands for:
A. Indications, Contraindications, Precautions, Cost, Adherence, Dosage
B. Interactions, Cost, Precautions, Contraindications, Age, Route
C. Indications, Compliance, Prescribing, Cost, Age, Dosage
D. Interactions, Contraindications, Pharmacokinetics, Cost, Adherence
Answer: A. Indications, Contraindications, Precautions, Cost, Adherence,
Dosage
Rationale: This mnemonic guides APRNs in considering key factors for rational
prescribing.
9. A legal requirement for prescribing controlled substances is:
A. A DEA registration number
B. A state medical license only
C. Patient consent forms
D. FDA approval for off-label use
Answer: A. A DEA registration number
Rationale: Prescribers must have a DEA number to prescribe controlled
substances, per federal law.
10. Patient education in the WHO prescribing process includes:
A. Discussing only the drug’s benefits
, 3
B. Explaining side effects, dosage, and adherence
C. Providing only written instructions
D. Avoiding discussion of adverse effects
Answer: B. Explaining side effects, dosage, and adherence
Rationale: Comprehensive patient education improves adherence and safety by
covering all aspects of the medication.
2. Pharmacodynamics
11. Pharmacodynamics refers to:
A. The movement of drugs through the body
B. The action of the drug on the body
C. The metabolism of drugs in the liver
D. The excretion of drugs by the kidneys
Answer: B. The action of the drug on the body
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body, including
mechanisms like receptor binding and therapeutic effects.
12. An agonist:
A. Blocks a receptor’s action
B. Mimics a receptor’s natural ligand
C. Reduces drug efficacy
D. Increases drug clearance
Answer: B. Mimics a receptor’s natural ligand
Rationale: Agonists bind to receptors and activate them, mimicking the effect of
natural substances like neurotransmitters.
13. An antagonist:
A. Enhances receptor activity
B. Blocks receptor activity
C. Increases drug potency
D. Prolongs drug half-life
Answer: B. Blocks receptor activity
Rationale: Antagonists bind to receptors without activating them, preventing
the action of agonists or natural ligands.
14. Drug affinity refers to:
A. The strength of a drug’s binding to a receptor
B. The drug’s therapeutic effect
C. The drug’s half-life
D. The drug’s metabolism rate
Answer: A. The strength of a drug’s binding to a receptor
Rationale: Affinity measures how tightly a drug binds to its receptor,
influencing its effectiveness.
