PSYCHIATRIC
TECHNICIAN STATE
BOARD
Complete Exam Preparation Guide
Psychiatric Technician State Board Practice Exam
1. The primary role of a psychiatric technician is to:
A) Prescribe medication for mental health disorders.
B) Provide long-term psychotherapy for clients.
C) Implement the treatment plan under the direction of a professional team.
D) Diagnose mental health conditions.
Answer: C) Implement the treatment plan under the direction of a professional team.
Rationale: Psychiatric technicians are vital members of the multidisciplinary team. Their role is
hands-on, focused on implementing the care plan developed by psychiatrists, psychologists, and
nurses, not on diagnosing, prescribing, or providing primary psychotherapy.
2. Which of the following is a example of a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A) Avolition
B) Anhedonia
C) Hallucinations
D) Flat affect
Answer: C) Hallucinations
Rationale: Positive symptoms are additions to normal behavior, such as hallucinations,
delusions, and disorganized speech. Negative symptoms (A, B, D) involve the absence or
diminution of normal functions like motivation, pleasure, and emotional expression.
3. When a patient is having an active seizure, the psychiatric technician's priority action is
to:
A) Restrain the patient to prevent injury.
B) Place a tongue depressor in the patient's mouth to prevent swallowing the tongue.
C) Time the seizure and move objects away to prevent injury.
D) Administer emergency antipsychotic medication.
Answer: C) Time the seizure and move objects away to prevent injury.
Rationale: The priority is patient safety. Restraining can cause injury. Nothing should ever be
placed in the mouth during a seizure as it can damage teeth or cause aspiration. Medication is
not indicated for an active epileptic seizure.
,4. A key characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder is:
A) A pervasive pattern of grandiosity.
B) A pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others.
C) A pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects.
D) A pervasive pattern of social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy.
Answer: C) A pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image,
and affects.
Rationale: This is the hallmark of Borderline Personality Disorder. Option A describes
Narcissistic PD, B describes Paranoid PD, and D describes Avoidant PD.
5. The therapeutic technique of "reflection" involves:
A) Asking a series of questions to uncover unconscious motives.
B) Restating the client's message in the technician's own words to show understanding.
C) Confronting the client about inappropriate behavior.
D) Giving advice to help solve a problem.
Answer: B) Restating the client's message in the technician's own words to show
understanding.
Rationale: Reflection is a fundamental communication technique that demonstrates active
listening and helps the client feel heard and understood, without judgment or advice-giving.
6. Tardive Dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term use of:
A) Benzodiazepines.
B) Antidepressants.
C) Typical (first-generation) antipsychotics.
D) Mood stabilizers.
Answer: C) Typical (first-generation) antipsychotics.
Rationale: Tardive Dyskinesia, characterized by involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, and
face, is a serious and often irreversible side effect associated with long-term use of typical
antipsychotics like haloperidol.
7. A patient says, "I'm nothing but a burden to everyone. They'd be better off if I were
gone." The most therapeutic response is:
A) "That's not true. Your family loves you."
B) "You shouldn't think that way."
C) "It sounds like you're feeling hopeless and worthless right now."
D) "Have you had thoughts of harming yourself?"
Answer: D) "Have you had thoughts of harming yourself?"
Rationale: The patient's statement is a overt indicator of suicidal ideation. The priority is to
assess directly and openly for suicidal intent to ensure patient safety. While C shows reflection, it
does not address the immediate risk.
8. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
in patients with alcohol use disorder?
A) Vitamin B12
B) Vitamin C
,C) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
D) Vitamin D
Answer: C) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Rationale: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine
deficiency, often seen in chronic alcoholism. It involves confusion, ataxia, and memory
impairment.
9. The defense mechanism where a person attributes their own unacceptable feelings or
impulses to someone else is called:
A) Projection
B) Displacement
C) Rationalization
D) Regression
Answer: A) Projection
Rationale: Projection is defined as attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to
another person (e.g., "He hates me" when the patient actually holds hatred for the other person).
10. A patient is experiencing extreme anxiety, pacing, sweating, and tachycardia. The
initial nursing intervention should be to:
A) Leave the patient alone to de-escalate privately.
B) Administer a PRN anxiolytic medication as ordered.
C) Use a calm, reassuring voice and stay with the patient.
D) Escort the patient to a seclusion room.
Answer: C) Use a calm, reassuring voice and stay with the patient.
Rationale: The presence of a calm staff member is a primary de-escalation technique. It
provides support and safety. Medication may be needed, but the first-line intervention is always
therapeutic communication and presence.
11. Informed consent for treatment is based primarily on the ethical principle of:
A) Justice
B) Beneficence
C) Autonomy
D) Fidelity
Answer: C) Autonomy
Rationale: Autonomy is the right of a patient to make informed decisions about their own care.
Informed consent is the practical application of this principle.
12. A patient diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder is most likely to exhibit:
A) Pressured speech and flight of ideas.
B) Elevated, expansive mood.
C) Psychomotor agitation or retardation.
D) Paranoid delusions of grandeur.
Answer: C) Psychomotor agitation or retardation.
Rationale: Psychomotor disturbances (either agitation like hand-wringing or retardation like
, slowed movements/speech) are a core symptom of a major depressive episode. A and B are
symptoms of mania.
13. The primary purpose of a "milieu therapy" is to:
A) Provide a safe, structured environment that promotes healing and learning.
B) Administer medication in a group setting.
C) Isolate patients from stressors.
D) Conduct daily group therapy sessions.
Answer: A) Provide a safe, structured environment that promotes healing and learning.
Rationale: Milieu therapy focuses on using the entire environment—the physical setting,
schedules, rules, and interactions—as a therapeutic tool to foster patient growth and improve
coping skills.
14. Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS) caused by antipsychotics do NOT include:
A) Dystonia
B) Akathisia
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Parkinsonism
Answer: C) Orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is an anticholinergic/adrenergic side effect, not an
extrapyramidal symptom. EPS include dystonia (muscle spasms), akathisia (motor restlessness),
and parkinsonism (tremor, shuffling gait).
15. When documenting a patient's behavior, the psychiatric technician should:
A) Use subjective interpretations (e.g., "The patient was being manipulative").
B) Record objective, factual data (e.g., "Patient shouted 'I won't go!' and struck the wall with fist").
C) Document assumptions about the patient's intent.
D) Use medical jargon to ensure precision.
Answer: B) Record objective, factual data (e.g., "Patient shouted 'I won't go!' and struck
the wall with fist").
Rationale: Documentation must be objective, factual, and non-judgmental. It should describe
observable behaviors and direct quotes, not interpretations or labels.
16. A patient is started on an SSRI antidepressant. The technician should educate the
patient that:
A) The medication will work immediately.
B) Therapeutic effects may take 4-6 weeks to be noticeable.
C) It is safe to stop the medication abruptly once they feel better.
D) Weight loss is a guaranteed side effect.
Answer: B) Therapeutic effects may take 4-6 weeks to be noticeable.
Rationale: A key teaching point for SSRIs is the delayed therapeutic onset. Abrupt
discontinuation can cause withdrawal symptoms, and weight changes can vary.
17. A patient with catatonia is most likely to exhibit:
A) Excessive, purposeless motor activity.
TECHNICIAN STATE
BOARD
Complete Exam Preparation Guide
Psychiatric Technician State Board Practice Exam
1. The primary role of a psychiatric technician is to:
A) Prescribe medication for mental health disorders.
B) Provide long-term psychotherapy for clients.
C) Implement the treatment plan under the direction of a professional team.
D) Diagnose mental health conditions.
Answer: C) Implement the treatment plan under the direction of a professional team.
Rationale: Psychiatric technicians are vital members of the multidisciplinary team. Their role is
hands-on, focused on implementing the care plan developed by psychiatrists, psychologists, and
nurses, not on diagnosing, prescribing, or providing primary psychotherapy.
2. Which of the following is a example of a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A) Avolition
B) Anhedonia
C) Hallucinations
D) Flat affect
Answer: C) Hallucinations
Rationale: Positive symptoms are additions to normal behavior, such as hallucinations,
delusions, and disorganized speech. Negative symptoms (A, B, D) involve the absence or
diminution of normal functions like motivation, pleasure, and emotional expression.
3. When a patient is having an active seizure, the psychiatric technician's priority action is
to:
A) Restrain the patient to prevent injury.
B) Place a tongue depressor in the patient's mouth to prevent swallowing the tongue.
C) Time the seizure and move objects away to prevent injury.
D) Administer emergency antipsychotic medication.
Answer: C) Time the seizure and move objects away to prevent injury.
Rationale: The priority is patient safety. Restraining can cause injury. Nothing should ever be
placed in the mouth during a seizure as it can damage teeth or cause aspiration. Medication is
not indicated for an active epileptic seizure.
,4. A key characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder is:
A) A pervasive pattern of grandiosity.
B) A pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others.
C) A pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects.
D) A pervasive pattern of social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy.
Answer: C) A pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image,
and affects.
Rationale: This is the hallmark of Borderline Personality Disorder. Option A describes
Narcissistic PD, B describes Paranoid PD, and D describes Avoidant PD.
5. The therapeutic technique of "reflection" involves:
A) Asking a series of questions to uncover unconscious motives.
B) Restating the client's message in the technician's own words to show understanding.
C) Confronting the client about inappropriate behavior.
D) Giving advice to help solve a problem.
Answer: B) Restating the client's message in the technician's own words to show
understanding.
Rationale: Reflection is a fundamental communication technique that demonstrates active
listening and helps the client feel heard and understood, without judgment or advice-giving.
6. Tardive Dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term use of:
A) Benzodiazepines.
B) Antidepressants.
C) Typical (first-generation) antipsychotics.
D) Mood stabilizers.
Answer: C) Typical (first-generation) antipsychotics.
Rationale: Tardive Dyskinesia, characterized by involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, and
face, is a serious and often irreversible side effect associated with long-term use of typical
antipsychotics like haloperidol.
7. A patient says, "I'm nothing but a burden to everyone. They'd be better off if I were
gone." The most therapeutic response is:
A) "That's not true. Your family loves you."
B) "You shouldn't think that way."
C) "It sounds like you're feeling hopeless and worthless right now."
D) "Have you had thoughts of harming yourself?"
Answer: D) "Have you had thoughts of harming yourself?"
Rationale: The patient's statement is a overt indicator of suicidal ideation. The priority is to
assess directly and openly for suicidal intent to ensure patient safety. While C shows reflection, it
does not address the immediate risk.
8. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
in patients with alcohol use disorder?
A) Vitamin B12
B) Vitamin C
,C) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
D) Vitamin D
Answer: C) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Rationale: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine
deficiency, often seen in chronic alcoholism. It involves confusion, ataxia, and memory
impairment.
9. The defense mechanism where a person attributes their own unacceptable feelings or
impulses to someone else is called:
A) Projection
B) Displacement
C) Rationalization
D) Regression
Answer: A) Projection
Rationale: Projection is defined as attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to
another person (e.g., "He hates me" when the patient actually holds hatred for the other person).
10. A patient is experiencing extreme anxiety, pacing, sweating, and tachycardia. The
initial nursing intervention should be to:
A) Leave the patient alone to de-escalate privately.
B) Administer a PRN anxiolytic medication as ordered.
C) Use a calm, reassuring voice and stay with the patient.
D) Escort the patient to a seclusion room.
Answer: C) Use a calm, reassuring voice and stay with the patient.
Rationale: The presence of a calm staff member is a primary de-escalation technique. It
provides support and safety. Medication may be needed, but the first-line intervention is always
therapeutic communication and presence.
11. Informed consent for treatment is based primarily on the ethical principle of:
A) Justice
B) Beneficence
C) Autonomy
D) Fidelity
Answer: C) Autonomy
Rationale: Autonomy is the right of a patient to make informed decisions about their own care.
Informed consent is the practical application of this principle.
12. A patient diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder is most likely to exhibit:
A) Pressured speech and flight of ideas.
B) Elevated, expansive mood.
C) Psychomotor agitation or retardation.
D) Paranoid delusions of grandeur.
Answer: C) Psychomotor agitation or retardation.
Rationale: Psychomotor disturbances (either agitation like hand-wringing or retardation like
, slowed movements/speech) are a core symptom of a major depressive episode. A and B are
symptoms of mania.
13. The primary purpose of a "milieu therapy" is to:
A) Provide a safe, structured environment that promotes healing and learning.
B) Administer medication in a group setting.
C) Isolate patients from stressors.
D) Conduct daily group therapy sessions.
Answer: A) Provide a safe, structured environment that promotes healing and learning.
Rationale: Milieu therapy focuses on using the entire environment—the physical setting,
schedules, rules, and interactions—as a therapeutic tool to foster patient growth and improve
coping skills.
14. Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS) caused by antipsychotics do NOT include:
A) Dystonia
B) Akathisia
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Parkinsonism
Answer: C) Orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is an anticholinergic/adrenergic side effect, not an
extrapyramidal symptom. EPS include dystonia (muscle spasms), akathisia (motor restlessness),
and parkinsonism (tremor, shuffling gait).
15. When documenting a patient's behavior, the psychiatric technician should:
A) Use subjective interpretations (e.g., "The patient was being manipulative").
B) Record objective, factual data (e.g., "Patient shouted 'I won't go!' and struck the wall with fist").
C) Document assumptions about the patient's intent.
D) Use medical jargon to ensure precision.
Answer: B) Record objective, factual data (e.g., "Patient shouted 'I won't go!' and struck
the wall with fist").
Rationale: Documentation must be objective, factual, and non-judgmental. It should describe
observable behaviors and direct quotes, not interpretations or labels.
16. A patient is started on an SSRI antidepressant. The technician should educate the
patient that:
A) The medication will work immediately.
B) Therapeutic effects may take 4-6 weeks to be noticeable.
C) It is safe to stop the medication abruptly once they feel better.
D) Weight loss is a guaranteed side effect.
Answer: B) Therapeutic effects may take 4-6 weeks to be noticeable.
Rationale: A key teaching point for SSRIs is the delayed therapeutic onset. Abrupt
discontinuation can cause withdrawal symptoms, and weight changes can vary.
17. A patient with catatonia is most likely to exhibit:
A) Excessive, purposeless motor activity.
