Master Your Exam: NUR 6531 Practice Test
with Detailed Answer Explanations (2026
Updated)
Description:
Ace your NUR 6531 exam with confidence! This expertly curated practice test features 110 up-
to-date questions aligned with the latest 2026 guidelines. Each question includes detailed
explanations to deepen your understanding and reinforce key concepts. Perfect for nursing
students seeking to validate their knowledge, identify areas for improvement, and maximize their
exam performance.
Get exam-ready—download your free study guide now!
, NUR 6531 Practice Questions & Answer Key | Updated 2026
Question 1
Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of thrombophilia?
a) Homocysteinemia (elevated homocysteine)
b) Protein C deficiency
c) Factor V Leiden
d) Antiphospholipid antibodies
Answer: d) Antiphospholipid antibodies
Explanation: Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS) is an acquired autoimmune disorder
that predisposes individuals to arterial and venous thrombosis. Homocysteinemia can be acquired
(e.g., from folate, B6, or B12 deficiency) or genetic. Protein C deficiency and Factor V Leiden
are hereditary causes.
Question 2
Phalen's test, 90° wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces symptoms of:
a) Ulnar tunnel syndrome
b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
c) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
d) Myofascial pain syndrome
Answer: b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation: Phalen's maneuver (maximal wrist flexion) increases pressure within the carpal
tunnel, compressing the median nerve and reproducing symptoms of paresthesia and pain, which
is characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question 3
Which patient would benefit most from screening for type 2 diabetes?
a) A 30-year-old female with unintended weight loss.
b) A 25-year-old male with a family history of type 1 diabetes.
c) An obese female with recurrent vaginitis.
d) A 50-year-old hyperlipidemic male.
,Answer: c) An obese female with recurrent vaginitis
Explanation: According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) 2025 guidelines,
screening is recommended for all adults aged 35 or older and for any adult with
overweight/obesity (BMI ≥25 kg/m² or ≥23 kg/m² in Asian Americans) who has one or more
additional risk factors. Recurrent candidal vaginitis is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia and
diabetes. Hyperlipidemia is also a risk factor, but the obese patient with a direct symptom of
diabetes presents a stronger case for immediate screening. Unintended weight loss is more
suggestive of type 1 diabetes, and a family history of type 1 diabetes is not a primary risk factor
for type 2 screening.
Question 4
A 72-year-old female patient reports a 6-month history of gradually progressive swollen and
painful distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no systemic symptoms, but the
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor (RF)
are all minimally elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
b) Osteoarthritis (OA)
c) Lupus
d) Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: b) Osteoarthritis (OA)
Explanation: The involvement of the DIP joints (classically Heberden's nodes) with a gradual
onset and lack of systemic symptoms is highly characteristic of osteoarthritis. Minimally
elevated inflammatory markers can be seen in OA and are not specific enough to override the
classic clinical presentation.
Question 5
A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on urination for 3 days.
Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract infection. The initial
treatment should be:
a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
b) Ciprofloxacin for 7-10 days
, c) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 14 days
d) Ciprofloxacin for 3 days
Answer: a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
Explanation: For uncomplicated urinary tract infections in men, a short-course (3-day)
antibiotic regimen is often effective if there are no complicating factors (e.g., prostatitis,
anatomical abnormalities). Local resistance patterns should guide the choice, but trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole remains a first-line option in areas with low resistance.
Question 6
A thymectomy is usually recommended in the early treatment of which disease?
a) Parkinson's disease
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Huntington's chorea
Answer: c) Myasthenia gravis
Explanation: Thymectomy (surgical removal of the thymus gland) is a standard treatment for
generalized myasthenia gravis, particularly in patients with thymoma or those under 50 years
old, as it can improve symptoms and induce remission.
Question 7
The diagnosis of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection in males is usually made by:
a) Clinical appearance
b) Viral culture
c) Tzanck smear
d) KOH prep
Answer: a) Clinical appearance
Explanation: In males, HPV infection (genital warts) is primarily diagnosed based on the
characteristic clinical appearance. There is no FDA-approved HPV test for screening males.
Biopsy is reserved for atypical cases.
with Detailed Answer Explanations (2026
Updated)
Description:
Ace your NUR 6531 exam with confidence! This expertly curated practice test features 110 up-
to-date questions aligned with the latest 2026 guidelines. Each question includes detailed
explanations to deepen your understanding and reinforce key concepts. Perfect for nursing
students seeking to validate their knowledge, identify areas for improvement, and maximize their
exam performance.
Get exam-ready—download your free study guide now!
, NUR 6531 Practice Questions & Answer Key | Updated 2026
Question 1
Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of thrombophilia?
a) Homocysteinemia (elevated homocysteine)
b) Protein C deficiency
c) Factor V Leiden
d) Antiphospholipid antibodies
Answer: d) Antiphospholipid antibodies
Explanation: Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS) is an acquired autoimmune disorder
that predisposes individuals to arterial and venous thrombosis. Homocysteinemia can be acquired
(e.g., from folate, B6, or B12 deficiency) or genetic. Protein C deficiency and Factor V Leiden
are hereditary causes.
Question 2
Phalen's test, 90° wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces symptoms of:
a) Ulnar tunnel syndrome
b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
c) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
d) Myofascial pain syndrome
Answer: b) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation: Phalen's maneuver (maximal wrist flexion) increases pressure within the carpal
tunnel, compressing the median nerve and reproducing symptoms of paresthesia and pain, which
is characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question 3
Which patient would benefit most from screening for type 2 diabetes?
a) A 30-year-old female with unintended weight loss.
b) A 25-year-old male with a family history of type 1 diabetes.
c) An obese female with recurrent vaginitis.
d) A 50-year-old hyperlipidemic male.
,Answer: c) An obese female with recurrent vaginitis
Explanation: According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) 2025 guidelines,
screening is recommended for all adults aged 35 or older and for any adult with
overweight/obesity (BMI ≥25 kg/m² or ≥23 kg/m² in Asian Americans) who has one or more
additional risk factors. Recurrent candidal vaginitis is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia and
diabetes. Hyperlipidemia is also a risk factor, but the obese patient with a direct symptom of
diabetes presents a stronger case for immediate screening. Unintended weight loss is more
suggestive of type 1 diabetes, and a family history of type 1 diabetes is not a primary risk factor
for type 2 screening.
Question 4
A 72-year-old female patient reports a 6-month history of gradually progressive swollen and
painful distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no systemic symptoms, but the
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor (RF)
are all minimally elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
b) Osteoarthritis (OA)
c) Lupus
d) Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: b) Osteoarthritis (OA)
Explanation: The involvement of the DIP joints (classically Heberden's nodes) with a gradual
onset and lack of systemic symptoms is highly characteristic of osteoarthritis. Minimally
elevated inflammatory markers can be seen in OA and are not specific enough to override the
classic clinical presentation.
Question 5
A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on urination for 3 days.
Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract infection. The initial
treatment should be:
a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
b) Ciprofloxacin for 7-10 days
, c) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 14 days
d) Ciprofloxacin for 3 days
Answer: a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
Explanation: For uncomplicated urinary tract infections in men, a short-course (3-day)
antibiotic regimen is often effective if there are no complicating factors (e.g., prostatitis,
anatomical abnormalities). Local resistance patterns should guide the choice, but trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole remains a first-line option in areas with low resistance.
Question 6
A thymectomy is usually recommended in the early treatment of which disease?
a) Parkinson's disease
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Huntington's chorea
Answer: c) Myasthenia gravis
Explanation: Thymectomy (surgical removal of the thymus gland) is a standard treatment for
generalized myasthenia gravis, particularly in patients with thymoma or those under 50 years
old, as it can improve symptoms and induce remission.
Question 7
The diagnosis of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection in males is usually made by:
a) Clinical appearance
b) Viral culture
c) Tzanck smear
d) KOH prep
Answer: a) Clinical appearance
Explanation: In males, HPV infection (genital warts) is primarily diagnosed based on the
characteristic clinical appearance. There is no FDA-approved HPV test for screening males.
Biopsy is reserved for atypical cases.
