NURS 6180 Exam 3 Blueprint/Study Guide
Fall 2024
1.Bartholin Gland cyst
Chapter 45 pg. 1285 Zoom notes: know what this is, what may be associated with it,
It is a fluid filled sac that results from the occlusion of the duct system in the Bartholin gland. If the cyst
becomes infected it is commonly caused by staphylococcal, chlamydia, and anaerobic infections. Treatements
is antibiotics, moist heat, I&D. We may insert a Word catheter so drainage can continue for a few weeks. After
menopause a vulvular growth should be suspect due to changes in hormones.
Which of the following statements most accurately captures a characteristic of the external female genitalia?
A) Skene and Bartholin glands perform endocrine and exocrine functions.
B) Surgical repair is required in the case of a ruptured hymen in prepubescent females.
C) The labia majora and clitoris are analogous to the male scrotum and penis, respectively.
D) The external genitalia facilitate sexual function and hormonal regulation.
Ans: C Feedback:Embryonic differentiation results in an anatomical relationship between the labia majora and
the scrotum and between the clitoris and the penis. There is no identified hormonal/endocrine role of the
structures of the external genitalia, and a ruptured hymen does not necessitate medical intervention.
A 13-year-old patient undergoing puberty is alarmed to find small, white bumps surrounding the areolae on her
nipples. You reassure her that these are a normal sign of her sexual maturation and tell her that they are which
of the following?
A) Skene glands
B) Bartholin glands
C) Montgomery tubercles D) Cooper ligaments
Ans: C Feedback:The small bumps or projections on the areolar surface known as Montgomery tubercles are
sebaceous glands that keep the nipple area soft and elastic. At puberty and during pregnancy, increased levels of
estrogen and progesterone cause the areola and nipple to become darker and more prominent and the
Montgomery glands to become more active.
Which of the following factors are known to contribute to vaginal yeast infections? Select all that apply.
A) Inflammation of the Skene and Bartholin glands. B) Poorly controlled diabetes
C) Recent antibiotic therapy
D) Excessive physical exercise
E) Use of oral contraceptives
F) High hormone levels during pregnancy Ans: B, C, E, F
Feedback: Reported risk factors for the overgrowth of C. albicans include recent antibiotic therapy, which
suppresses the normal protective bacterial flora; high hormone levels owing to pregnancy or the use of oral
contraceptives, which cause an increase in vaginal glycogen stores; and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus or HIV
infection, because they compromise the immune system. Exercise and glandular inflammation are not noted risk
factors for yeast infections.
2.Causes of Obesity
Chapter 39 page 1162-1164 Zoom notes what are some causes, what are modifiable vs non-modifiable
Causes of obesity include genetics, metabolism, behavior, environment, culture, socioeconomic status and
medical conditions such as Cushing, PCOS, and some medications. Environmental influences remains the major
contributor.
-Growth hormone (GH) secretion is inhibited by:
A) hypoglycemia. B) starvation.
C) heavy exercise. D) obesity.
Ans: D Feedback: GH is inhibited by increased glucose levels, free fatty acid release, cortisol, and obesity. It is
stimulated by hypoglycemia, fasting starvation, increased blood levels of amino acids, and stress conditions
such as trauma, excitement, emotional stress, and heavy exercise.
-A 43-year-old male who is 5′10′′ tall and weighs 216 lb has been informed by his nurse practitioner that his
body mass index (BMI) is 31. Which of the following clinical conclusions based on these data would his nurse
be most justified in rejecting?
,A) Further investigation of his nutritional status is needed to supplement the BMI value. B) The client faces an
increased risk of type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia.
C) He is classified as being obese, likely as the result of the interplay of genetic and lifestyle factors.
D) The client is borderline obese but is not yet at the point of significantly increased risks to health.
Ans: D Feedback: A BMI of 31 is classified as obese, and the client faces a risk of hypertension,
hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, and other health problems. While BMI is a valid
instrument, other data sources are needed to supplement this value clinically. Obesity is considered to be an
outcome of a variety of factors.
-Frustrated with his inability to lose weight despite attempting numerous fad diets, a 42-year-old male who is
5′11′′ and 270 lb has visited a clinic to gain tools to achieve long-term weight loss. Which of the following
statements by the clinician is most accurate?
A) “Recent findings have determined that obesity is largely genetic and not preventable, but that doesn't mean
we can't work together to help you lose weight and keep it off.”
B) “A combined approach of behavior therapy, changing your lifestyle habits, and increased physical activity
gives the highest chance of long-term success.”
C) “By significantly changing the way you live your life, you could set and meet a goal of losing about 5% of
your body weight each month.”
D) “Combined with regular exercise, a diet of taking in 500 to 1000 kcal/day will be the best approach.”
Ans: B Feedback: A combined approach to weight loss including diet modification, exercise, and drug therapy
has been shown to be successful in the treatment of obesity. In spite of a genetic component, obesity is still
considered to be preventable. A reasonable rate of weight loss should be 5% to 10% of total body weight over a
6-month period. A reduction in food intake of between 500 and 1000 kcal, not a total food intake of 500 to 1000
kcal, is often necessary in the treatment of individuals with high BMIs. Pharmacotherapy and surgery are
available as adjuncts
-A 43-year-old male who is 5′10′′ tall and weighs 216 lb has been informed by his nurse practitioner that his
body mass index (BMI) is 31. Which of the following clinical conclusions based on these data would his nurse
be most justified in rejecting?
A) Further investigation of his nutritional status is needed to supplement the BMI
value.
B) The client faces an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia.
C) He is classified as being obese, likely as the result of the interplay of genetic and
lifestyle factors.
D) The client is borderline obese but is not yet at the point of significantly increased
risks to health.
Ans: D Feedback: A BMI of 31 is classified as obese, and the client faces a risk of hypertension,
hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, and other health problems. While BMI is a valid
instrument, other data sources are needed to supplement this value clinically. Obesity is considered to be an
outcome of a variety of factors including heredity and lifestyle.
1. A dietitian is working with a morbidly obese client in an effort to facilitate weight loss. Which of the
dietitian's following teaching points about the nature of adipose tissue should be included in the client
education?
A) “Our ultimate goal is going to be eventually rid your body of adipose tissue or
fat.”
B) “Your fat cells can be considered to be one large energy storage organ that also
has a role in hormone production.”
C) “We ideally would like to maximize your levels of brown fat and minimize those
of white fat.”
D) “Obesity is normally the result of the number of 'pre-fat' cells an individual is
born with.”
Ans: B Feedback: Fat cells are collectively considered a large body organ that is metabolically active in the
uptake, synthesis, storage, and mobilization of lipids, which are the main source of stored fuel for the body; the
role of adipose tissue as an endocrine organ has also been recently elucidated. It is neither a desirable nor
,reasonable goal to entirely rid the body of fat, given the key roles it plays in homeostasis, and brown fat is not
common in postnatal life. Preadipocytes have been shown to play a role in obesity, but the condition is still
primarily a consequence of energy intake exceeding output.
3. Condylomata acuminata
Chapter 46, Pg 1321-1322
Condylomata acuminata, also known as anogenital warts or genital warts, are a manifestation of human
papillomavirus (HPV) infection that appear as raised growths on the genitals, anus, lips, tongue, mouth, or
throat: Most common type of STI, this is a nonenveloped DNA virus. Inoculation occurs in a stratified
squamous epithelium and the incubation can last from 3 weeks to several months.
-During unprotected sex, a 17-year-old female high school senior has been exposed to the human
papillomavirus (HPV). The school nurse would recognize that the student is at a considerable risk of developing
which of the following diagnoses?
A) Genital herpes
B) Gonorrhea
C) Condylomata acuminata D) Candidiasis
Ans: C Feedback:HPV is an identified precursor to condylomata acuminata, or genital warts. Herpes,
gonorrhea, and candidiasis are not likely to result directly from HPV.
- A campus-based peer counseling group is conducting an information blitz on sexually transmitted diseases.
Which of the following statements about genital warts requires correction?
A) “Genital warts can take up to a month after exposure to first become visible.”
B) “There is no existing treatment that can eradicate the virus once it's contracted.”
C) “Condoms do not necessarily prevent the transmission of the virus that causes
genital warts.”
D) “There are a number of subtypes of the virus that cause genital warts, but current
vaccines protect against most common causes of them.”
Ans: A Feedback: Genital warts can take between 6 weeks to 8 months to incubate after exposure. The virus
cannot be eliminated, and condoms do not provide proven protection. Vaccine protects against 4 HPV types
4. Secretory gland functions in the GI tract
Chapter 36, pg 1063-1064
GI hormones secreted are gastrin, ghrelin, secretin, CCK, and incretin hormones such as GLP-1, and GIP
Gastrin stimulates gastric acide secretion
Ghrelin is known as the hunger hormone and contributes to the regulation of body weight by stimulating growth
hormone secretion from the pituitary gland, increasing adiposity, and reducing energy expenditure.
Secretin inhibits gastric acide secretion.
CCK stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion.
Incretin hormones augments insulin release, suprreses glucagon release, slows gastric emptying, decreased
appetite and body weight.
-A science teacher is talking to a group of fifth graders about the role of “spit.” During the course of the
discussion, the teacher asks the students which of the following are functions of saliva?
A) Good protection device if someone is being attacked
B) Will have more saliva production when anxious, such as right before a test C) Has antibacterial action to
help keep the mouth clean
D) Secretes acid to chemically break down fatty foods like French fries
E) Secretes the enzyme pepsin
Ans: C Feedback:Saliva has three functions. The first is to protect and lubricate. The second is to provide
antimicrobial protection. The third is to initiate digestion of starches by secreting enzymes. If anxious, SNS
activity causes dry mouth. Saliva begins breaking down starches (carbohydrates), not fatty foods. The chief
cells secrete pepsinogen, which is converted into pepsin, the enzyme that breaks down protein. This occurs in
the stomach.
- A 42-year-old female client with a long-standing history of chronic nausea and vomiting but a near-
insatiable appetite has had her symptoms attributed to an enzyme deficiency. Further diagnostic testing
, indicates that she has inadequate pancreatic enzyme levels and that her large appetite is due to a lack of enzyme
control of food intake inhibition. In which of the following enzymes is the woman most likely deficient?
A) Cholecystokinin B) Ghrelin
C) Gastrin
D) Secretin
Ans: A Feedback:Cholecystokinin is responsible for inhibiting food intake as well as stimulating pancreatic
enzyme secretion. Ghrelin stimulates food intake, while gastrin stimulates gastric acid production, and secretin
inhibits it.
5. Adrenal insufficiency
Chapter 41, pgs 1208-1210
Two forms: primary and secondary. Primary is Addison disease and is caused by destruction of the gland, most
commonly from autoimmune. S/SX are anorexia, fatigue, GI symptoms, abdominal pain, hypotension,
hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, secondary deficiencies in Testosterone, GH, thyroxine, and ADH.
Secondary results from a disorder of HPA system, it is not associated with autoimmune and only hyponatremia
is common with hyperpigmentation of the skin. Commonly caused by rapid withdrawal of glucocorticoids.
- Following destruction of the pituitary gland, ACTH stimulation stops. Without ACTH to stimulate the adrenal
glands, the adrenals' production of cortisol drops. This is an example of which type of endocrine disorder?
A) Primary
B) Secondary C) Tertiary
D) Somatic
Ans: B Feedback:In secondary disorders of endocrine function, the target gland is essentially normal, but
defective levels of stimulating hormones or releasing factors from the pituitary system alter its function.
Which of the following statements best captures the role of the adrenal cortex in maintaining homeostasis?
A) The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of epinephrine and norepinephrine that are part of
the sympathetic nervous system.
B) The adrenal cortical hormones are primarily steroids and sex hormones.
C) Redundant, secondary production of adrenal cortical hormones can compensate for the loss of the
adrenal glands.
D) Normal sexual function is dependent on adequate adrenal cortical function. Ans: B
Feedback:
The adrenal cortex is responsible for secreting three types of hormones: the glucocorticoids, the
mineralocorticoids, and the adrenal androgens. The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and
norepinephrine, and there are no alternate production sites for adrenal cortical hormones. The adrenal
androgens are least responsible for normal sexual function.
-Which of the following statements best captures the role of the adrenal cortex in maintaining homeostasis?
A) The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of epinephrine and norepinephrine that are part of the
sympathetic nervous system.
B) The adrenal cortical hormones are primarily steroids and sex hormones.
C) Redundant, secondary production of adrenal cortical hormones can compensate
for the loss of the adrenal glands.
D) Normal sexual function is dependent on adequate adrenal cortical function.
Ans: B Feedback: The adrenal cortex is responsible for secreting three types of hormones: the glucocorticoids,
the mineralocorticoids, and the adrenal androgens. The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and
norepinephrine, and there are no alternate production sites for adrenal cortical hormones. The adrenal androgens
are least responsible for normal sexual function.
6.Facial Nerve testing
Chapter 13 pages 362-363
-As the eyes rotate upward, the upper eyelid reflexively retracts. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible
for this response?
A) Cranial nerve I B) Cranial nerve III C) Cranial nerve VI D) Cranial nerve IV
Ans: B Feedback: The CN III (oculomotor) nucleus, which extends through a considerable part of the midbrain,
contains clusters of lower motor neurons for each of the five eye muscles it innervates. Because of its plane of
Fall 2024
1.Bartholin Gland cyst
Chapter 45 pg. 1285 Zoom notes: know what this is, what may be associated with it,
It is a fluid filled sac that results from the occlusion of the duct system in the Bartholin gland. If the cyst
becomes infected it is commonly caused by staphylococcal, chlamydia, and anaerobic infections. Treatements
is antibiotics, moist heat, I&D. We may insert a Word catheter so drainage can continue for a few weeks. After
menopause a vulvular growth should be suspect due to changes in hormones.
Which of the following statements most accurately captures a characteristic of the external female genitalia?
A) Skene and Bartholin glands perform endocrine and exocrine functions.
B) Surgical repair is required in the case of a ruptured hymen in prepubescent females.
C) The labia majora and clitoris are analogous to the male scrotum and penis, respectively.
D) The external genitalia facilitate sexual function and hormonal regulation.
Ans: C Feedback:Embryonic differentiation results in an anatomical relationship between the labia majora and
the scrotum and between the clitoris and the penis. There is no identified hormonal/endocrine role of the
structures of the external genitalia, and a ruptured hymen does not necessitate medical intervention.
A 13-year-old patient undergoing puberty is alarmed to find small, white bumps surrounding the areolae on her
nipples. You reassure her that these are a normal sign of her sexual maturation and tell her that they are which
of the following?
A) Skene glands
B) Bartholin glands
C) Montgomery tubercles D) Cooper ligaments
Ans: C Feedback:The small bumps or projections on the areolar surface known as Montgomery tubercles are
sebaceous glands that keep the nipple area soft and elastic. At puberty and during pregnancy, increased levels of
estrogen and progesterone cause the areola and nipple to become darker and more prominent and the
Montgomery glands to become more active.
Which of the following factors are known to contribute to vaginal yeast infections? Select all that apply.
A) Inflammation of the Skene and Bartholin glands. B) Poorly controlled diabetes
C) Recent antibiotic therapy
D) Excessive physical exercise
E) Use of oral contraceptives
F) High hormone levels during pregnancy Ans: B, C, E, F
Feedback: Reported risk factors for the overgrowth of C. albicans include recent antibiotic therapy, which
suppresses the normal protective bacterial flora; high hormone levels owing to pregnancy or the use of oral
contraceptives, which cause an increase in vaginal glycogen stores; and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus or HIV
infection, because they compromise the immune system. Exercise and glandular inflammation are not noted risk
factors for yeast infections.
2.Causes of Obesity
Chapter 39 page 1162-1164 Zoom notes what are some causes, what are modifiable vs non-modifiable
Causes of obesity include genetics, metabolism, behavior, environment, culture, socioeconomic status and
medical conditions such as Cushing, PCOS, and some medications. Environmental influences remains the major
contributor.
-Growth hormone (GH) secretion is inhibited by:
A) hypoglycemia. B) starvation.
C) heavy exercise. D) obesity.
Ans: D Feedback: GH is inhibited by increased glucose levels, free fatty acid release, cortisol, and obesity. It is
stimulated by hypoglycemia, fasting starvation, increased blood levels of amino acids, and stress conditions
such as trauma, excitement, emotional stress, and heavy exercise.
-A 43-year-old male who is 5′10′′ tall and weighs 216 lb has been informed by his nurse practitioner that his
body mass index (BMI) is 31. Which of the following clinical conclusions based on these data would his nurse
be most justified in rejecting?
,A) Further investigation of his nutritional status is needed to supplement the BMI value. B) The client faces an
increased risk of type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia.
C) He is classified as being obese, likely as the result of the interplay of genetic and lifestyle factors.
D) The client is borderline obese but is not yet at the point of significantly increased risks to health.
Ans: D Feedback: A BMI of 31 is classified as obese, and the client faces a risk of hypertension,
hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, and other health problems. While BMI is a valid
instrument, other data sources are needed to supplement this value clinically. Obesity is considered to be an
outcome of a variety of factors.
-Frustrated with his inability to lose weight despite attempting numerous fad diets, a 42-year-old male who is
5′11′′ and 270 lb has visited a clinic to gain tools to achieve long-term weight loss. Which of the following
statements by the clinician is most accurate?
A) “Recent findings have determined that obesity is largely genetic and not preventable, but that doesn't mean
we can't work together to help you lose weight and keep it off.”
B) “A combined approach of behavior therapy, changing your lifestyle habits, and increased physical activity
gives the highest chance of long-term success.”
C) “By significantly changing the way you live your life, you could set and meet a goal of losing about 5% of
your body weight each month.”
D) “Combined with regular exercise, a diet of taking in 500 to 1000 kcal/day will be the best approach.”
Ans: B Feedback: A combined approach to weight loss including diet modification, exercise, and drug therapy
has been shown to be successful in the treatment of obesity. In spite of a genetic component, obesity is still
considered to be preventable. A reasonable rate of weight loss should be 5% to 10% of total body weight over a
6-month period. A reduction in food intake of between 500 and 1000 kcal, not a total food intake of 500 to 1000
kcal, is often necessary in the treatment of individuals with high BMIs. Pharmacotherapy and surgery are
available as adjuncts
-A 43-year-old male who is 5′10′′ tall and weighs 216 lb has been informed by his nurse practitioner that his
body mass index (BMI) is 31. Which of the following clinical conclusions based on these data would his nurse
be most justified in rejecting?
A) Further investigation of his nutritional status is needed to supplement the BMI
value.
B) The client faces an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia.
C) He is classified as being obese, likely as the result of the interplay of genetic and
lifestyle factors.
D) The client is borderline obese but is not yet at the point of significantly increased
risks to health.
Ans: D Feedback: A BMI of 31 is classified as obese, and the client faces a risk of hypertension,
hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, and other health problems. While BMI is a valid
instrument, other data sources are needed to supplement this value clinically. Obesity is considered to be an
outcome of a variety of factors including heredity and lifestyle.
1. A dietitian is working with a morbidly obese client in an effort to facilitate weight loss. Which of the
dietitian's following teaching points about the nature of adipose tissue should be included in the client
education?
A) “Our ultimate goal is going to be eventually rid your body of adipose tissue or
fat.”
B) “Your fat cells can be considered to be one large energy storage organ that also
has a role in hormone production.”
C) “We ideally would like to maximize your levels of brown fat and minimize those
of white fat.”
D) “Obesity is normally the result of the number of 'pre-fat' cells an individual is
born with.”
Ans: B Feedback: Fat cells are collectively considered a large body organ that is metabolically active in the
uptake, synthesis, storage, and mobilization of lipids, which are the main source of stored fuel for the body; the
role of adipose tissue as an endocrine organ has also been recently elucidated. It is neither a desirable nor
,reasonable goal to entirely rid the body of fat, given the key roles it plays in homeostasis, and brown fat is not
common in postnatal life. Preadipocytes have been shown to play a role in obesity, but the condition is still
primarily a consequence of energy intake exceeding output.
3. Condylomata acuminata
Chapter 46, Pg 1321-1322
Condylomata acuminata, also known as anogenital warts or genital warts, are a manifestation of human
papillomavirus (HPV) infection that appear as raised growths on the genitals, anus, lips, tongue, mouth, or
throat: Most common type of STI, this is a nonenveloped DNA virus. Inoculation occurs in a stratified
squamous epithelium and the incubation can last from 3 weeks to several months.
-During unprotected sex, a 17-year-old female high school senior has been exposed to the human
papillomavirus (HPV). The school nurse would recognize that the student is at a considerable risk of developing
which of the following diagnoses?
A) Genital herpes
B) Gonorrhea
C) Condylomata acuminata D) Candidiasis
Ans: C Feedback:HPV is an identified precursor to condylomata acuminata, or genital warts. Herpes,
gonorrhea, and candidiasis are not likely to result directly from HPV.
- A campus-based peer counseling group is conducting an information blitz on sexually transmitted diseases.
Which of the following statements about genital warts requires correction?
A) “Genital warts can take up to a month after exposure to first become visible.”
B) “There is no existing treatment that can eradicate the virus once it's contracted.”
C) “Condoms do not necessarily prevent the transmission of the virus that causes
genital warts.”
D) “There are a number of subtypes of the virus that cause genital warts, but current
vaccines protect against most common causes of them.”
Ans: A Feedback: Genital warts can take between 6 weeks to 8 months to incubate after exposure. The virus
cannot be eliminated, and condoms do not provide proven protection. Vaccine protects against 4 HPV types
4. Secretory gland functions in the GI tract
Chapter 36, pg 1063-1064
GI hormones secreted are gastrin, ghrelin, secretin, CCK, and incretin hormones such as GLP-1, and GIP
Gastrin stimulates gastric acide secretion
Ghrelin is known as the hunger hormone and contributes to the regulation of body weight by stimulating growth
hormone secretion from the pituitary gland, increasing adiposity, and reducing energy expenditure.
Secretin inhibits gastric acide secretion.
CCK stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion.
Incretin hormones augments insulin release, suprreses glucagon release, slows gastric emptying, decreased
appetite and body weight.
-A science teacher is talking to a group of fifth graders about the role of “spit.” During the course of the
discussion, the teacher asks the students which of the following are functions of saliva?
A) Good protection device if someone is being attacked
B) Will have more saliva production when anxious, such as right before a test C) Has antibacterial action to
help keep the mouth clean
D) Secretes acid to chemically break down fatty foods like French fries
E) Secretes the enzyme pepsin
Ans: C Feedback:Saliva has three functions. The first is to protect and lubricate. The second is to provide
antimicrobial protection. The third is to initiate digestion of starches by secreting enzymes. If anxious, SNS
activity causes dry mouth. Saliva begins breaking down starches (carbohydrates), not fatty foods. The chief
cells secrete pepsinogen, which is converted into pepsin, the enzyme that breaks down protein. This occurs in
the stomach.
- A 42-year-old female client with a long-standing history of chronic nausea and vomiting but a near-
insatiable appetite has had her symptoms attributed to an enzyme deficiency. Further diagnostic testing
, indicates that she has inadequate pancreatic enzyme levels and that her large appetite is due to a lack of enzyme
control of food intake inhibition. In which of the following enzymes is the woman most likely deficient?
A) Cholecystokinin B) Ghrelin
C) Gastrin
D) Secretin
Ans: A Feedback:Cholecystokinin is responsible for inhibiting food intake as well as stimulating pancreatic
enzyme secretion. Ghrelin stimulates food intake, while gastrin stimulates gastric acid production, and secretin
inhibits it.
5. Adrenal insufficiency
Chapter 41, pgs 1208-1210
Two forms: primary and secondary. Primary is Addison disease and is caused by destruction of the gland, most
commonly from autoimmune. S/SX are anorexia, fatigue, GI symptoms, abdominal pain, hypotension,
hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, secondary deficiencies in Testosterone, GH, thyroxine, and ADH.
Secondary results from a disorder of HPA system, it is not associated with autoimmune and only hyponatremia
is common with hyperpigmentation of the skin. Commonly caused by rapid withdrawal of glucocorticoids.
- Following destruction of the pituitary gland, ACTH stimulation stops. Without ACTH to stimulate the adrenal
glands, the adrenals' production of cortisol drops. This is an example of which type of endocrine disorder?
A) Primary
B) Secondary C) Tertiary
D) Somatic
Ans: B Feedback:In secondary disorders of endocrine function, the target gland is essentially normal, but
defective levels of stimulating hormones or releasing factors from the pituitary system alter its function.
Which of the following statements best captures the role of the adrenal cortex in maintaining homeostasis?
A) The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of epinephrine and norepinephrine that are part of
the sympathetic nervous system.
B) The adrenal cortical hormones are primarily steroids and sex hormones.
C) Redundant, secondary production of adrenal cortical hormones can compensate for the loss of the
adrenal glands.
D) Normal sexual function is dependent on adequate adrenal cortical function. Ans: B
Feedback:
The adrenal cortex is responsible for secreting three types of hormones: the glucocorticoids, the
mineralocorticoids, and the adrenal androgens. The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and
norepinephrine, and there are no alternate production sites for adrenal cortical hormones. The adrenal
androgens are least responsible for normal sexual function.
-Which of the following statements best captures the role of the adrenal cortex in maintaining homeostasis?
A) The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of epinephrine and norepinephrine that are part of the
sympathetic nervous system.
B) The adrenal cortical hormones are primarily steroids and sex hormones.
C) Redundant, secondary production of adrenal cortical hormones can compensate
for the loss of the adrenal glands.
D) Normal sexual function is dependent on adequate adrenal cortical function.
Ans: B Feedback: The adrenal cortex is responsible for secreting three types of hormones: the glucocorticoids,
the mineralocorticoids, and the adrenal androgens. The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and
norepinephrine, and there are no alternate production sites for adrenal cortical hormones. The adrenal androgens
are least responsible for normal sexual function.
6.Facial Nerve testing
Chapter 13 pages 362-363
-As the eyes rotate upward, the upper eyelid reflexively retracts. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible
for this response?
A) Cranial nerve I B) Cranial nerve III C) Cranial nerve VI D) Cranial nerve IV
Ans: B Feedback: The CN III (oculomotor) nucleus, which extends through a considerable part of the midbrain,
contains clusters of lower motor neurons for each of the five eye muscles it innervates. Because of its plane of
