2025 Updated Portage Learning
Pathophysiology NURS 231/BIOD 331
Final Exam | Certified Solutions for All
Versions
Contents
1 Module 1: Cellular Adaptations and Basic Concepts 2
2 Module 2: Neoplasia and Cancer 5
3 Module 3: Immune System 6
4 Module 4: Hematology and Cardiovascular 7
5 Module 5: Pulmonary System 8
6 Module 7: Gastrointestinal Disorders 9
7 Module 8: Renal System 10
8 Module 9: Endocrine Disorders 11
9 Module 10: Musculoskeletal Disorders 12
10 Final Exam Compilation 12
11 Additional Relevant Questions and Answers 13
1
,1. Module 1: Cellular Adaptations and Basic Concepts
• Q: What is the definition of "pathophysiology"?
A: Pathophysiology is defined as the study of cellular and organ changes that occur with
disease, as well as the effects these changes have on the overall function of the body. It
examines how diseases alter normal physiological processes at both the microscopic and
systemic levels.
• Q: Name the 5 etiologic factors and give an example if listed.
A: The five etiologic factors are biologic agents (e.g., bacteria, viruses), physical forces (e.g.,
trauma, burns, radiation), chemical agents (e.g., poisons, alcohol), genetic inheritance, and
nutritional excesses or deficiencies. These factors contribute to the initiation or progression
of diseases by disrupting normal cellular or bodily functions.
• Q: What are the 2 types of risk factors?
A: Risk factors are categorized into congenital conditions, which are present at birth and may
include genetic or developmental abnormalities, and acquired defects, which occur after birth
and can result from environmental exposures, lifestyle choices, or injuries.
• Q: What is the difference between morphology and histology?
A: Morphology refers to the fundamental structure or form of cells or tissues, focusing on
their shape and appearance. Histology is the study of the microscopic anatomy of cells and
the extracellular matrix of body tissues, providing detailed insights into tissue composition
and organization.
• Q: Describe the difference between signs and symptoms and give an example of each.
A: Signs are objective manifestations of disease that can be observed or measured by others,
such as an elevated temperature, a swollen extremity, or changes in pupil size. Symptoms are
subjective complaints reported by the patient, such as pain, trouble breathing, or dizziness,
which cannot be directly observed by others.
• Q: What are 3 important processes when coming to a diagnosis?
A: The three important processes in diagnosis are taking a careful history to understand the
patient’s symptoms and medical background, performing a physical examination to identify
objective signs, and sometimes conducting diagnostic tests to confirm or rule out specific
conditions.
• Q: Explain validity, reliability, sensitivity, and specificity.
A: Validity is the extent to which a diagnostic tool measures what it is intended to mea-
sure, ensuring accuracy in assessing the condition. Reliability is the consistency of the tool,
indicating how likely it is to produce the same result if repeated under similar conditions.
Sensitivity is the proportion of people with a disease who test positive, reflecting the test’s
ability to identify those with the condition. Specificity is the proportion of people without
the disease who test negative, indicating the test’s ability to correctly exclude those without
the condition.
• Q: Define epidemiology and name some things that it tracks.
A: Epidemiology is the study of disease occurrence in human populations, aiming to under-
stand patterns and causes of health and disease. It tracks factors such as age, race, dietary
habits, lifestyle choices, and geographic location to identify risk factors and inform public
health strategies.
• Q: What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?
2
, A: Incidence is the number of new cases of a disease in a population at risk during a specified
time period, reflecting the rate of new disease occurrence. Prevalence is the total number
of people with the disease in a population at a given time, including both new and existing
cases, providing a measure of disease burden.
• Q: Define mortality and morbidity.
A: Morbidity refers to the effect of an illness on an individual’s life, encompassing the impact
on quality of life, functional ability, and health status. Mortality statistics deal with the causes
of death in a population, providing data on fatality rates and leading causes of death.
• Q: Define primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention and give an example of each.
A: Primary prevention aims to remove risk factors to prevent disease occurrence, such as
taking folic acid during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, vaccinating children against
communicable diseases, eating healthy and exercising to prevent heart disease, or wearing
seatbelts and helmets to prevent injuries. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection
and treatment of disease, usually when asymptomatic and curable, such as annual Pap smears
for early cervical cancer detection, encouraging smoking cessation, checking blood pressure
and cholesterol, or colonoscopy screening. Tertiary prevention occurs after disease diagnosis
to reduce complications or deterioration, such as taking medications after a heart attack to
lower the risk of future events or death.
• Q: Explain apoptosis and why it is necessary.
A: Apoptosis is programmed cell death to remove worn-out or damaged cells; Necessary for
tissue renewal like in intestines or blood cells, preventing uncontrolled growth and maintain-
ing cellular homeostasis.
• Q: Persistent metaplasia can lead to dysplasia. True or False?
A: True. Persistent metaplasia, a reversible change in cell type due to chronic irritation,
can progress to dysplasia, which involves abnormal cell proliferation and is a precancerous
condition if the stressor continues.
• Q: Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia. True or False?
A: False (It is metaplasia). Barrett’s esophagus involves the replacement of squamous ep-
ithelium with columnar epithelium in the esophagus due to chronic acid reflux, representing
metaplasia, but it can lead to dysplasia if untreated.
• Q: Persistent dysplasia eventually results in cancer. True or False?
A: True. Persistent dysplasia, characterized by disordered cell growth and maturation, can
progress to neoplasia and eventually cancer if the underlying cause is not addressed, as seen
in cervical dysplasia leading to cervical cancer.
• Q: Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions. True or False?
A: True. Hypertrophy is the increase in cell size, which can occur under normal conditions,
such as muscle growth from exercise, or pathological conditions, such as cardiac hypertrophy
due to chronic hypertension, where increased workload leads to enlarged heart muscle cells
to meet demand.
• Q: What is the proportion of people with a disease who test positive for it?
A: Sensitivity. Sensitivity measures the proportion of people with the disease who test pos-
itive, indicating how well a test identifies those with the condition, crucial for ruling out
disease when the test is negative.
• Q: What is the likelihood of getting the same result with repeat testing?
3
Pathophysiology NURS 231/BIOD 331
Final Exam | Certified Solutions for All
Versions
Contents
1 Module 1: Cellular Adaptations and Basic Concepts 2
2 Module 2: Neoplasia and Cancer 5
3 Module 3: Immune System 6
4 Module 4: Hematology and Cardiovascular 7
5 Module 5: Pulmonary System 8
6 Module 7: Gastrointestinal Disorders 9
7 Module 8: Renal System 10
8 Module 9: Endocrine Disorders 11
9 Module 10: Musculoskeletal Disorders 12
10 Final Exam Compilation 12
11 Additional Relevant Questions and Answers 13
1
,1. Module 1: Cellular Adaptations and Basic Concepts
• Q: What is the definition of "pathophysiology"?
A: Pathophysiology is defined as the study of cellular and organ changes that occur with
disease, as well as the effects these changes have on the overall function of the body. It
examines how diseases alter normal physiological processes at both the microscopic and
systemic levels.
• Q: Name the 5 etiologic factors and give an example if listed.
A: The five etiologic factors are biologic agents (e.g., bacteria, viruses), physical forces (e.g.,
trauma, burns, radiation), chemical agents (e.g., poisons, alcohol), genetic inheritance, and
nutritional excesses or deficiencies. These factors contribute to the initiation or progression
of diseases by disrupting normal cellular or bodily functions.
• Q: What are the 2 types of risk factors?
A: Risk factors are categorized into congenital conditions, which are present at birth and may
include genetic or developmental abnormalities, and acquired defects, which occur after birth
and can result from environmental exposures, lifestyle choices, or injuries.
• Q: What is the difference between morphology and histology?
A: Morphology refers to the fundamental structure or form of cells or tissues, focusing on
their shape and appearance. Histology is the study of the microscopic anatomy of cells and
the extracellular matrix of body tissues, providing detailed insights into tissue composition
and organization.
• Q: Describe the difference between signs and symptoms and give an example of each.
A: Signs are objective manifestations of disease that can be observed or measured by others,
such as an elevated temperature, a swollen extremity, or changes in pupil size. Symptoms are
subjective complaints reported by the patient, such as pain, trouble breathing, or dizziness,
which cannot be directly observed by others.
• Q: What are 3 important processes when coming to a diagnosis?
A: The three important processes in diagnosis are taking a careful history to understand the
patient’s symptoms and medical background, performing a physical examination to identify
objective signs, and sometimes conducting diagnostic tests to confirm or rule out specific
conditions.
• Q: Explain validity, reliability, sensitivity, and specificity.
A: Validity is the extent to which a diagnostic tool measures what it is intended to mea-
sure, ensuring accuracy in assessing the condition. Reliability is the consistency of the tool,
indicating how likely it is to produce the same result if repeated under similar conditions.
Sensitivity is the proportion of people with a disease who test positive, reflecting the test’s
ability to identify those with the condition. Specificity is the proportion of people without
the disease who test negative, indicating the test’s ability to correctly exclude those without
the condition.
• Q: Define epidemiology and name some things that it tracks.
A: Epidemiology is the study of disease occurrence in human populations, aiming to under-
stand patterns and causes of health and disease. It tracks factors such as age, race, dietary
habits, lifestyle choices, and geographic location to identify risk factors and inform public
health strategies.
• Q: What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?
2
, A: Incidence is the number of new cases of a disease in a population at risk during a specified
time period, reflecting the rate of new disease occurrence. Prevalence is the total number
of people with the disease in a population at a given time, including both new and existing
cases, providing a measure of disease burden.
• Q: Define mortality and morbidity.
A: Morbidity refers to the effect of an illness on an individual’s life, encompassing the impact
on quality of life, functional ability, and health status. Mortality statistics deal with the causes
of death in a population, providing data on fatality rates and leading causes of death.
• Q: Define primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention and give an example of each.
A: Primary prevention aims to remove risk factors to prevent disease occurrence, such as
taking folic acid during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, vaccinating children against
communicable diseases, eating healthy and exercising to prevent heart disease, or wearing
seatbelts and helmets to prevent injuries. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection
and treatment of disease, usually when asymptomatic and curable, such as annual Pap smears
for early cervical cancer detection, encouraging smoking cessation, checking blood pressure
and cholesterol, or colonoscopy screening. Tertiary prevention occurs after disease diagnosis
to reduce complications or deterioration, such as taking medications after a heart attack to
lower the risk of future events or death.
• Q: Explain apoptosis and why it is necessary.
A: Apoptosis is programmed cell death to remove worn-out or damaged cells; Necessary for
tissue renewal like in intestines or blood cells, preventing uncontrolled growth and maintain-
ing cellular homeostasis.
• Q: Persistent metaplasia can lead to dysplasia. True or False?
A: True. Persistent metaplasia, a reversible change in cell type due to chronic irritation,
can progress to dysplasia, which involves abnormal cell proliferation and is a precancerous
condition if the stressor continues.
• Q: Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia. True or False?
A: False (It is metaplasia). Barrett’s esophagus involves the replacement of squamous ep-
ithelium with columnar epithelium in the esophagus due to chronic acid reflux, representing
metaplasia, but it can lead to dysplasia if untreated.
• Q: Persistent dysplasia eventually results in cancer. True or False?
A: True. Persistent dysplasia, characterized by disordered cell growth and maturation, can
progress to neoplasia and eventually cancer if the underlying cause is not addressed, as seen
in cervical dysplasia leading to cervical cancer.
• Q: Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions. True or False?
A: True. Hypertrophy is the increase in cell size, which can occur under normal conditions,
such as muscle growth from exercise, or pathological conditions, such as cardiac hypertrophy
due to chronic hypertension, where increased workload leads to enlarged heart muscle cells
to meet demand.
• Q: What is the proportion of people with a disease who test positive for it?
A: Sensitivity. Sensitivity measures the proportion of people with the disease who test pos-
itive, indicating how well a test identifies those with the condition, crucial for ruling out
disease when the test is negative.
• Q: What is the likelihood of getting the same result with repeat testing?
3
