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Examen

FSBPT Practice Exam 2 Solved 100% Correct

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FSBPT Practice Exam 2 Solved 100% Correct This document provides a complete set of solved practice exam questions for the FSBPT, with every answer verified as correct. It covers a wide range of topics essential for physical therapy exam preparation, including musculoskeletal, neurological, cardiopulmonary, integumentary, pediatric, and rehabilitation case scenarios. Each question is presented with the correct answer and detailed explanations, making this a highly effective study tool for mastering exam content. Keywords: FSBPT practice exam solved questions physical therapy review PTA exam prep musculoskeletal rehabilitation neurological disorders cardiopulmonary therapy study guide verified answers

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Subido en
17 de agosto de 2025
Número de páginas
18
Escrito en
2025/2026
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Examen
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FSBPT Practice Exam 2 Solved 100% Correct
2. Anterior instability occurs when the abducted shoulder is repetitively placed in a
position of lateral (external) rotation and horizontal abduction, as occurs in competitive
swimming or various other sports. This can often lead to recurrent subluxations of the
shoulder and ultimately to osteoarthritis or a torn rotator cuff.

A patient consistently loses balance posteriorly when standing on foam. To improve the
patient's balance, the strength of which of the following muscles should be addressed?
1. Tibialis anterior and quadriceps
2. Gastrocnemius and quadriceps
3. Tibialis anterior and hamstrings
4. Gastrocnemius and hamstrings - ANSWER-1. Tibialis anterior and quadriceps

1. The tibialis anterior and quadriceps muscles are active when shifting weight
anteriorly, which would be required if a patient loses balance posteriorly.
2. The gastrocnemius is activated when losing balance anteriorly, not posteriorly.
3. The hamstrings are activated in response to losing balance anteriorly, not posteriorly.
4. The gastrocnemius and hamstrings are activated in response to losing balance
anteriorly, not posteriorly.

A patient falls forward onto an outstretched upper extremity and reports pain and
swelling in the elbow and forearm. The patient has a deformity of the elbow and refuses
to move the extremity. The patient MOST likely has which of the following injuries?
1. Olecranon fracture
2. Distal radius fracture
3. Radioulnar joint dislocation
4. Humeroulnar joint dislocation - ANSWER-Humeroulnar joint dislocation

The most common mechanism of injury associated with a humeroulnar joint dislocation
is hyperextension of the elbow during axial loading, typically resulting from a fall on
outstretched upper extremity or extended elbow. Signs and symptoms of a humeroulnar
dislocation include immediate pain, swelling, deformity, and unwillingness to move the
extremity.

A patient has a transfemoral prosthesis in which the knee friction is inadequate. Which
of the following gait deviations is the patient MOST likely to exhibit?
1. Uneven step length
2. Abduction in stance phase
3. Terminal impact in late swing phase
4. Lateral trunk bending in stance phase - ANSWER-3. Terminal impact in late swing
will be observed if the friction is inadequate in a transfemoral prosthetic knee.

1. Uneven step length is the result of an uncomfortable socket or insufficient knee
flexion.

,2. Abduction in stance is the result of a long prosthesis, abducted hip joint, inadequate
lateral wall adduction, or a sharp or high medial wall.
3. Terminal impact in late swing will be observed if the friction is inadequate in a
transfemoral prosthetic knee.
4. Lateral trunk bending in stance is the result of a short prosthesis, inadequate lateral
wall adduction, or a sharp or high medial wall.

A patient has been immobilized in a knee extension brace due to a patellar fracture for
the past 2 weeks. The patient has no significant medical history. When sitting up, the
patient exhibits acute dyspnea, tachycardia, and a decrease in oxygen saturation levels.
Which of the following conditions is MOST likely causing the symptoms?
1. Bacterial pneumonia
2. Pulmonary embolism
3. Orthostatic hypotension
4. Emphysema - ANSWER-2. Pulmonary embolism

1. Clinical manifestations of pneumonia include cough and fever, which are not included
in the list of symptoms presented (Hillegass, p. 143).
2. Signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism include acute onset of dyspnea,
decrease in oxygen saturation levels, and tachycardia (Hillegass, p. 156).
3. Signs of orthostatic hypotension include dizziness, light-headedness, pallor, and
diaphoresis (Goodman).
4. Initial symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or emphysema include
coughing, sputum production, and increased dyspnea

A patient has bruising of the upper extremities, a "moon-face" appearance, redness of
the face, a protruding abdomen, and hypertension. The patient MOST likely has which
of the following conditions?
1. Hyperpituitarism
2. Addison disease
3. Cushing disease
4. Hypoparathyroidism - ANSWER-3. Cushing disease

1. Hyperpituitarism results in large hands and feet; enlarged jaw, nose, and lips;
thickening of the facial tissues; and acromegaly. These signs and symptoms are not
consistent with the description in the stem. (p. 479)
2. The signs and symptoms of Addison disease include weight loss, hypotension, and
increased skin pigmentation. These signs and symptoms are not consistent with the
description in the stem. (p. 498)
3. People who have Cushing syndrome/disease typically have hypertension, red face,
"moon face," trunk obesity, and a tendency to bruise easily (p. 501).
4. Hypoparathyroidism results in cramps, spasms, nausea, vomiting, and brittle nails.
These signs and symptoms are not consistent with the description in the stem. (p. 497)

, A patient has calcific tendinitis of the supraspinatus tendon. When treating the patient
using iontophoresis, which of the following combinations of drug and polarity of the
delivery electrode is MOST appropriate?
1. Acetic acid with positive polarity of the delivery electrode
2. Acetic acid with negative polarity of the delivery electrode
3. Dexamethasone with positive polarity of the delivery electrode
4. Dexamethasone with negative polarity of the delivery electrode - ANSWER-2. Acetic
acid with negative polarity of the delivery electrode

Acetic acid is appropriate for treatment of calcific tendinitis. The polarity of the delivery
electrode should be negative. Acetic acid is believed to increase the solubility of calcium
deposits found in calcific tendinitis, and the acetate ion is a negatively charged ion

A patient has degenerative lumbar spinal stenosis with bilateral radicular pain. Which of
the following interventions would be MOST appropriate?
1. Hamstring and rectus abdominis stretches
2. Hip flexor and lumbar paraspinal stretches
3. Rectus femoris and lumbar extension stretches
4. Bilateral knee-to-chest and anterior pelvic tilt exercises - ANSWER-2. Hip flexor and
lumbar paraspinal stretches
The goal is to produce a natural posterior tilt/flattening of lordosis (p. 447); both hip
flexor and lumbar paraspinal stretches will facilitate a reduced lumbar lordosis.

A patient has diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following types of exercise should the
patient AVOID?
1. Isometrics
2. Stretching
3. Low-intensity aerobics
4. Moderate resistive strengthening - ANSWER-1. A patient who has diabetic
retinopathy should avoid isometric exercises due to the risk of excessive pressure on
blood vessels and the possibility of hemorrhage

A patient is confused and has a fever and neck stiffness. Upon passive neck flexion, the
patient's hips and knees flex. The patient MOST likely has which of the following
conditions?
1. Encephalitis
2. Brain abscess
3. Bacterial meningitis
4. Herpes simplex virus - ANSWER-In bacterial meningitis, inflammation begins in the
subarachnoid space, then spreads to the adjacent brain parenchyma. In the early
stages, the patient reports fever, neck stiffness, and altered mental status. As
inflammation progresses, flexion of the neck will produce flexion of the hips and knees,
known as a positive Brudzinski sign.
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