Pharmacology Evolve HESI LATEST 2025
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A 19-year-old male client who has sus-
tained a severe head injury is intubated
and placed on assisted mechanical ven-
tilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation B. Neostigmine bromide
and prevent the client from "fighting" the
ventilator, the health care provider ad- Neostigmine bromide and atropine sul-
ministers pancuronium bromide IV, with fate, both anticholinergic drugs, reverse
adjunctive opioid analgesia. What med- the respiratory muscle paralysis caused
ication should be immediately accessi- by pancuronium bromide. Options A, C,
ble for a potential complication with this and D are not antagonists to pancuro-
drug? nium bromide and would not be helpful
in reversing the effects of the drug com-
A. Dantrolene sodium pared with the use of anticholinergics.
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine
A client with viral influenza is receiving
vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, and ac-
etaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4
hours PRN. The nurse calls the health
care provider to report that the client
has developed diarrhea. Which change
in prescriptions should the nurse antici-
pate? C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibupro-
fen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable
route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.
When providing nursing care for a
client receiving pyridostigmine bromide
for myasthenia gravis, which nursing in-
tervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary
retention.
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B. Assess respiratory status and breath
sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to
B. Assess respiratory status and breath
screen for hypertension.
sounds often.
D. Administer most medications after
meals to decrease gastrointestinal irrita-
tion.
A client with a dislocated shoulder is
being prepared for a closed manual re-
duction using conscious sedation. Which
medication should the nurse explain as a
sedative used during the procedure?
B. Midazolam IV
A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
B.Midazolam IV
C.Ketamine IM
D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM
A client is being discharged with a pre-
scription for sulfasalazine to treat ulcer-
ative colitis. Which instruction should the
nurse provide to this client prior to dis-
charge?
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a
A. Maintain good oral hygiene. day.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before
a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a
day.
The health care provider prescribes
C. Myelosuppression
carbamazepine for a child whose ton-
ic-clonic seizures have been poorly con-
Myelosuppression is the highest priority
trolled. The nurse informs the mother that
complication that can potentially affect
the child must have blood tests every
clients managed with carbamazepine
week. The mother asks why so many
therapy. The client requires close moni-
blood tests are necessary. Which com-
toring for this condition by weekly labo-
plication is assessed through frequent
ratory testing. Hepatic function may be
laboratory testing that the nurse should
, Pharmacology Evolve HESI LATEST 2025
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explain to this mother?
altered, but this complication does not
have as great a potential for occurrence
A. Nephrotoxicity
as option C. Options A and B are not
B. Ototoxicity
typical complications of carbamazepine
C. Myelosuppression
therapy.
D.Hepatotoxicity
When developing a written nursing care
plan for a client receiving chemotherapy
for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes,
D. Cyclophosphamide
"Assess each voiding for hematuria."
The administration of which type of
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic
chemotherapeutic agent would prompt
adverse reaction of cyclophosphamide.
the nurse to add this intervention?
Administration of options A, B, and C
does not typically cause hemorrhagic
A. Vincristine
cystitis.
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a
persistent tinea corporis infection. Which
response by the client indicates an accu-
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow
rate understanding of the drug teaching
the lawn."
conducted by the nurse?
Photosensitivity is a side effect of grise-
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow
ofulvin, so clients should be cautioned
the lawn."
to wear protective sunscreen during sun
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection
exposure. Options B, C, and D are not
I've ever had."
accurate statements about side effects of
C. "I will need to take the medication for
this medication.
7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due
to this drug."
A 6-year-old child is admitted to
the emergency department with status B. Diazepam
epilepticus. His parents report that his
seizure disorder has been managed with Diazepam is the drug of choice for treat-
phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past ment of status epilepticus. Options A, C,
year. Which drug should the nurse plan
, Pharmacology Evolve HESI LATEST 2025
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmet
to administer in the emergency depart-
ment?
and D are used for the long-term man-
agement of seizure disorders but are not
A. Phenytoin
as useful in the emergency management
B. Diazepam
of status epilepticus.
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine
D. Contact the health care provider for
A client who has trouble swallowing pills
another form of medication.
intermittently has been prescribed ven-
lafaxine (XR) for depression. The med-
Venlafaxine is administered PO in
ication comes in capsule form. What
capsule form. Capsules that are ex-
should the nurse include in the discharge
tended-release (XR) or continuous-re-
teaching plan for this client?
lease (CR) contain delayed-release, en-
teric-coated granules to prevent decom-
A. Capsule contents can be sprinkled on
position of the drug in the acidic pH of
pudding or applesauce.
the stomach. The client should notify the
B. Chew the medication thoroughly to
health care provider about the inabili-
enhance absorption.
ty to swallow the capsule. This medica-
C. Take the medication with a large glass
tion should not be chewed or opened so
of water or juice.
that the delayed-release, enteric-coated
D. Contact the health care provider for
granules can remain intact. Water or juice
another form of medication.
will not affect the medication.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when apply-
ing the anesthetic.
The nurse is preparing to apply a sur-
face anesthetic agent for a client. Which To minimize systemic absorption of top-
action should the nurse implement to re- ical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent
duce the risk of systemic absorption? should be applied to the smallest sur-
face area of intact skin. Application to
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous mem- the mucous membranes poses the great-
branes. est risk of systemic absorption because
B. Limit the area of application to in- absorption occurs more readily through
flamed areas. mucous membranes than through the
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when apply- skin. Inflamed areas generally have an
ing the anesthetic. increased blood supply, which increases
the risk of systemic absorption, so op-
tion B should be avoided. A large sur-
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmet
A 19-year-old male client who has sus-
tained a severe head injury is intubated
and placed on assisted mechanical ven-
tilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation B. Neostigmine bromide
and prevent the client from "fighting" the
ventilator, the health care provider ad- Neostigmine bromide and atropine sul-
ministers pancuronium bromide IV, with fate, both anticholinergic drugs, reverse
adjunctive opioid analgesia. What med- the respiratory muscle paralysis caused
ication should be immediately accessi- by pancuronium bromide. Options A, C,
ble for a potential complication with this and D are not antagonists to pancuro-
drug? nium bromide and would not be helpful
in reversing the effects of the drug com-
A. Dantrolene sodium pared with the use of anticholinergics.
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine
A client with viral influenza is receiving
vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, and ac-
etaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4
hours PRN. The nurse calls the health
care provider to report that the client
has developed diarrhea. Which change
in prescriptions should the nurse antici-
pate? C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibupro-
fen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable
route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.
When providing nursing care for a
client receiving pyridostigmine bromide
for myasthenia gravis, which nursing in-
tervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary
retention.
, Pharmacology Evolve HESI LATEST 2025
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmet
B. Assess respiratory status and breath
sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to
B. Assess respiratory status and breath
screen for hypertension.
sounds often.
D. Administer most medications after
meals to decrease gastrointestinal irrita-
tion.
A client with a dislocated shoulder is
being prepared for a closed manual re-
duction using conscious sedation. Which
medication should the nurse explain as a
sedative used during the procedure?
B. Midazolam IV
A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
B.Midazolam IV
C.Ketamine IM
D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM
A client is being discharged with a pre-
scription for sulfasalazine to treat ulcer-
ative colitis. Which instruction should the
nurse provide to this client prior to dis-
charge?
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a
A. Maintain good oral hygiene. day.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before
a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a
day.
The health care provider prescribes
C. Myelosuppression
carbamazepine for a child whose ton-
ic-clonic seizures have been poorly con-
Myelosuppression is the highest priority
trolled. The nurse informs the mother that
complication that can potentially affect
the child must have blood tests every
clients managed with carbamazepine
week. The mother asks why so many
therapy. The client requires close moni-
blood tests are necessary. Which com-
toring for this condition by weekly labo-
plication is assessed through frequent
ratory testing. Hepatic function may be
laboratory testing that the nurse should
, Pharmacology Evolve HESI LATEST 2025
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmet
explain to this mother?
altered, but this complication does not
have as great a potential for occurrence
A. Nephrotoxicity
as option C. Options A and B are not
B. Ototoxicity
typical complications of carbamazepine
C. Myelosuppression
therapy.
D.Hepatotoxicity
When developing a written nursing care
plan for a client receiving chemotherapy
for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes,
D. Cyclophosphamide
"Assess each voiding for hematuria."
The administration of which type of
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic
chemotherapeutic agent would prompt
adverse reaction of cyclophosphamide.
the nurse to add this intervention?
Administration of options A, B, and C
does not typically cause hemorrhagic
A. Vincristine
cystitis.
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a
persistent tinea corporis infection. Which
response by the client indicates an accu-
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow
rate understanding of the drug teaching
the lawn."
conducted by the nurse?
Photosensitivity is a side effect of grise-
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow
ofulvin, so clients should be cautioned
the lawn."
to wear protective sunscreen during sun
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection
exposure. Options B, C, and D are not
I've ever had."
accurate statements about side effects of
C. "I will need to take the medication for
this medication.
7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due
to this drug."
A 6-year-old child is admitted to
the emergency department with status B. Diazepam
epilepticus. His parents report that his
seizure disorder has been managed with Diazepam is the drug of choice for treat-
phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past ment of status epilepticus. Options A, C,
year. Which drug should the nurse plan
, Pharmacology Evolve HESI LATEST 2025
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hlzmet
to administer in the emergency depart-
ment?
and D are used for the long-term man-
agement of seizure disorders but are not
A. Phenytoin
as useful in the emergency management
B. Diazepam
of status epilepticus.
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine
D. Contact the health care provider for
A client who has trouble swallowing pills
another form of medication.
intermittently has been prescribed ven-
lafaxine (XR) for depression. The med-
Venlafaxine is administered PO in
ication comes in capsule form. What
capsule form. Capsules that are ex-
should the nurse include in the discharge
tended-release (XR) or continuous-re-
teaching plan for this client?
lease (CR) contain delayed-release, en-
teric-coated granules to prevent decom-
A. Capsule contents can be sprinkled on
position of the drug in the acidic pH of
pudding or applesauce.
the stomach. The client should notify the
B. Chew the medication thoroughly to
health care provider about the inabili-
enhance absorption.
ty to swallow the capsule. This medica-
C. Take the medication with a large glass
tion should not be chewed or opened so
of water or juice.
that the delayed-release, enteric-coated
D. Contact the health care provider for
granules can remain intact. Water or juice
another form of medication.
will not affect the medication.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when apply-
ing the anesthetic.
The nurse is preparing to apply a sur-
face anesthetic agent for a client. Which To minimize systemic absorption of top-
action should the nurse implement to re- ical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent
duce the risk of systemic absorption? should be applied to the smallest sur-
face area of intact skin. Application to
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous mem- the mucous membranes poses the great-
branes. est risk of systemic absorption because
B. Limit the area of application to in- absorption occurs more readily through
flamed areas. mucous membranes than through the
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when apply- skin. Inflamed areas generally have an
ing the anesthetic. increased blood supply, which increases
the risk of systemic absorption, so op-
tion B should be avoided. A large sur-
