NR 667 CEA EXAM PREP 2025 WITH 150 EXAM PREP QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
Question 1
A 34-year-old female with a known history of Multiple Sclerosis presents to the clinic with a
new onset of optic neuritis and worsening ataxia over the last 72 hours. Which of the following is
the most appropriate initial treatment for this acute flare?
A) Infliximab
B) High-dose corticosteroids
C) Hydroxychloroquine
D) Methotrexate
Correct Answer: B) High-dose corticosteroids
Rationale: High-dose steroids are the first-line treatment for managing acute exacerbations
or flares of Multiple Sclerosis to reduce inflammation and shorten the duration of the
relapse.
Question 2
A 28-year-old female is newly diagnosed with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). When
providing patient education on non-pharmacologic management, which of the following is a
crucial recommendation?
A) Increase intake of vitamin D fortified dairy products.
B) Begin a high-intensity interval training program.
C) Avoid or minimize direct sun exposure.
D) It is safe to continue smoking 1-2 cigarettes per day.
Correct Answer: C) Avoid or minimize direct sun exposure.
Rationale: Sunlight (UV radiation) is a known trigger for lupus flares and can worsen the
,characteristic malar rash. Sun protection is a key component of non-pharmacologic
management.
Question 3
A 45-year-old patient presents with pain, stiffness, and swelling in the joints of her hands and
wrists bilaterally. The symptoms are worse in the morning and improve slightly with activity.
This symmetrical presentation is most characteristic of which condition?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Gout
C) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Correct Answer: D) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rationale: Rheumatoid Arthritis is an autoimmune disease characterized by bilateral and
symmetrical inflammation of the joints, particularly the small joints of the hands and feet,
with hallmark morning stiffness.
Question 4
A 65-year-old male complains of deep, aching pain in his right knee that worsens with activity
and is relieved by rest. On examination, there is no significant swelling or warmth, but crepitus is
noted with range of motion. This unilateral presentation is most suggestive of:
A) Rheumatoid Arthritis
B) Psoriatic Arthritis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Septic Arthritis
, Correct Answer: C) Osteoarthritis
Rationale: Osteoarthritis (OA) is a degenerative joint disease that typically presents
asymmetrically or unilaterally. The pain is mechanical in nature, worsening with use and
improving with rest.
Question 5
A 50-year-old patient is undergoing chemotherapy for lymphoma. They develop acute kidney
injury, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia. This constellation of findings is
indicative of what oncologic emergency?
A) Pleural effusion
B) Superior vena cava syndrome
C) Tumor lysis syndrome
D) Neutropenic fever
Correct Answer: C) Tumor lysis syndrome
Rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome is a metabolic emergency caused by the rapid breakdown
of malignant cells, which releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and uric acid
into the circulation, leading to the characteristic electrolyte abnormalities and acute kidney
injury.
Question 6
A 55-year-old male presents to the clinic with several weeks of drenching night sweats, a 15-
pound unintentional weight loss, and fatigue. On examination, you note non-tender cervical and
supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. These findings are most concerning for which diagnosis?
A) Mononucleosis
B) Tuberculosis
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
Question 1
A 34-year-old female with a known history of Multiple Sclerosis presents to the clinic with a
new onset of optic neuritis and worsening ataxia over the last 72 hours. Which of the following is
the most appropriate initial treatment for this acute flare?
A) Infliximab
B) High-dose corticosteroids
C) Hydroxychloroquine
D) Methotrexate
Correct Answer: B) High-dose corticosteroids
Rationale: High-dose steroids are the first-line treatment for managing acute exacerbations
or flares of Multiple Sclerosis to reduce inflammation and shorten the duration of the
relapse.
Question 2
A 28-year-old female is newly diagnosed with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). When
providing patient education on non-pharmacologic management, which of the following is a
crucial recommendation?
A) Increase intake of vitamin D fortified dairy products.
B) Begin a high-intensity interval training program.
C) Avoid or minimize direct sun exposure.
D) It is safe to continue smoking 1-2 cigarettes per day.
Correct Answer: C) Avoid or minimize direct sun exposure.
Rationale: Sunlight (UV radiation) is a known trigger for lupus flares and can worsen the
,characteristic malar rash. Sun protection is a key component of non-pharmacologic
management.
Question 3
A 45-year-old patient presents with pain, stiffness, and swelling in the joints of her hands and
wrists bilaterally. The symptoms are worse in the morning and improve slightly with activity.
This symmetrical presentation is most characteristic of which condition?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Gout
C) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Correct Answer: D) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rationale: Rheumatoid Arthritis is an autoimmune disease characterized by bilateral and
symmetrical inflammation of the joints, particularly the small joints of the hands and feet,
with hallmark morning stiffness.
Question 4
A 65-year-old male complains of deep, aching pain in his right knee that worsens with activity
and is relieved by rest. On examination, there is no significant swelling or warmth, but crepitus is
noted with range of motion. This unilateral presentation is most suggestive of:
A) Rheumatoid Arthritis
B) Psoriatic Arthritis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Septic Arthritis
, Correct Answer: C) Osteoarthritis
Rationale: Osteoarthritis (OA) is a degenerative joint disease that typically presents
asymmetrically or unilaterally. The pain is mechanical in nature, worsening with use and
improving with rest.
Question 5
A 50-year-old patient is undergoing chemotherapy for lymphoma. They develop acute kidney
injury, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia. This constellation of findings is
indicative of what oncologic emergency?
A) Pleural effusion
B) Superior vena cava syndrome
C) Tumor lysis syndrome
D) Neutropenic fever
Correct Answer: C) Tumor lysis syndrome
Rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome is a metabolic emergency caused by the rapid breakdown
of malignant cells, which releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and uric acid
into the circulation, leading to the characteristic electrolyte abnormalities and acute kidney
injury.
Question 6
A 55-year-old male presents to the clinic with several weeks of drenching night sweats, a 15-
pound unintentional weight loss, and fatigue. On examination, you note non-tender cervical and
supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. These findings are most concerning for which diagnosis?
A) Mononucleosis
B) Tuberculosis
