Final Exam Q & A - NURS6521 / NURS
6521 (Latest ) : Advanced
Pharmacology - Walden
Section 1: General Pharmacology Principles (Questions 1–
10)
1. What is the purpose of the Beers Criteria in medication management for older
adults?
A. To increase medication doses
B. To identify potentially inappropriate medications
C. To standardize pediatric dosing
D. To reduce medication costs
Answer: To identify potentially inappropriate medications
Rationale: The Beers Criteria list medications that pose higher risks of adverse effects in
older adults, guiding safer prescribing.
2. Which laboratory result is critical to monitor in a patient taking warfarin? (Select
all that apply)
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B. Platelet count
C. Liver function tests
D. Blood glucose
E. Creatinine clearance
Answer: International Normalized Ratio (INR), Platelet count, Liver function tests
Rationale: INR monitors anticoagulation, platelet count assesses bleeding risk, and liver
function tests evaluate warfarin's metabolism.
3. A patient reports taking St. John’s Wort. What is a potential drug interaction?
A. Enhanced effect of antihistamines
B. Reduced efficacy of oral contraceptives
C. Increased insulin sensitivity
D. Decreased risk of bleeding
Answer: Reduced efficacy of oral contraceptives
Rationale: St. John’s Wort induces cytochrome P450 enzymes, reducing the efficacy of
oral contraceptives.
, 4. What is the definition of bioavailability?
A. The rate of drug metabolism in the liver
B. The fraction of an administered drug that reaches systemic circulation
C. The time it takes for a drug to reach peak effect
D. The duration of a drug’s effect
Answer: The fraction of an administered drug that reaches systemic circulation
Rationale: Bioavailability measures the proportion of a drug that enters the bloodstream,
affecting its efficacy.
5. What is a key nursing action when administering a medication with a narrow
therapeutic index?
A. Administer without monitoring
B. Monitor therapeutic drug levels
C. Double the dose if ineffective
D. Avoid patient education
Answer: Monitor therapeutic drug levels
Rationale: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index (e.g., warfarin, digoxin) require
monitoring to ensure safety and efficacy.
6. A patient experiences anaphylaxis after receiving penicillin. What is the immediate
treatment?
A. Administer more penicillin
B. Administer epinephrine
C. Provide oral antihistamines
D. Monitor without intervention
Answer: Administer epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse airway
constriction and hypotension.
7. What is a characteristic of a drug with a high first-pass effect?
A. Requires lower oral doses
B. Has increased bioavailability
C. Requires higher oral doses
D. Is not metabolized by the liver
Answer: Requires higher oral doses
Rationale: A high first-pass effect reduces oral bioavailability, necessitating higher oral
doses compared to IV.
8. Which medication administration right ensures the correct patient receives the
drug?
A. Right dose
B. Right patient
6521 (Latest ) : Advanced
Pharmacology - Walden
Section 1: General Pharmacology Principles (Questions 1–
10)
1. What is the purpose of the Beers Criteria in medication management for older
adults?
A. To increase medication doses
B. To identify potentially inappropriate medications
C. To standardize pediatric dosing
D. To reduce medication costs
Answer: To identify potentially inappropriate medications
Rationale: The Beers Criteria list medications that pose higher risks of adverse effects in
older adults, guiding safer prescribing.
2. Which laboratory result is critical to monitor in a patient taking warfarin? (Select
all that apply)
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B. Platelet count
C. Liver function tests
D. Blood glucose
E. Creatinine clearance
Answer: International Normalized Ratio (INR), Platelet count, Liver function tests
Rationale: INR monitors anticoagulation, platelet count assesses bleeding risk, and liver
function tests evaluate warfarin's metabolism.
3. A patient reports taking St. John’s Wort. What is a potential drug interaction?
A. Enhanced effect of antihistamines
B. Reduced efficacy of oral contraceptives
C. Increased insulin sensitivity
D. Decreased risk of bleeding
Answer: Reduced efficacy of oral contraceptives
Rationale: St. John’s Wort induces cytochrome P450 enzymes, reducing the efficacy of
oral contraceptives.
, 4. What is the definition of bioavailability?
A. The rate of drug metabolism in the liver
B. The fraction of an administered drug that reaches systemic circulation
C. The time it takes for a drug to reach peak effect
D. The duration of a drug’s effect
Answer: The fraction of an administered drug that reaches systemic circulation
Rationale: Bioavailability measures the proportion of a drug that enters the bloodstream,
affecting its efficacy.
5. What is a key nursing action when administering a medication with a narrow
therapeutic index?
A. Administer without monitoring
B. Monitor therapeutic drug levels
C. Double the dose if ineffective
D. Avoid patient education
Answer: Monitor therapeutic drug levels
Rationale: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index (e.g., warfarin, digoxin) require
monitoring to ensure safety and efficacy.
6. A patient experiences anaphylaxis after receiving penicillin. What is the immediate
treatment?
A. Administer more penicillin
B. Administer epinephrine
C. Provide oral antihistamines
D. Monitor without intervention
Answer: Administer epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse airway
constriction and hypotension.
7. What is a characteristic of a drug with a high first-pass effect?
A. Requires lower oral doses
B. Has increased bioavailability
C. Requires higher oral doses
D. Is not metabolized by the liver
Answer: Requires higher oral doses
Rationale: A high first-pass effect reduces oral bioavailability, necessitating higher oral
doses compared to IV.
8. Which medication administration right ensures the correct patient receives the
drug?
A. Right dose
B. Right patient
