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Pharmacology Evolve HESI Latest 2025 Questions and Answers Graded A+|Assured Success

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Pharmacology Evolve HESI Latest 2025 Questions and Answers Graded A+|Assured Success

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Subido en
31 de julio de 2025
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2024/2025
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Pharmacology Evolve HESI Latest 2025 Questions and
Answers Graded A+|Assured Success




The client should be instructed to report signs of colchicine toxicity, such as nausea, diarrhea,
vomiting, and/or abdominal pain, to the health care provider. Food inhibits the absorption of
colchicine when ingested concurrently. Limited fluid intake decreases the excretion of the uric
acid crystals, which contributes to painful attacks. Typically, a client should remain on a daily
dose of colchicine to decrease the number and severity of acute attacks, so stopping the
medication after the pain resolves is not indicated.

,Amoxicillin, 500 mg PO every 8 hours, is prescribed for a client with an infection. The drug is
available in a suspension of 125 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer
with each dose?




A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25 - CORRECT ANSWER-C. 20




500 mg/x mL = 125 mg/5 mL

125x = 2500

x = 20 mL




Methenamine mandelate is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection and renal
calculi. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?




A. The frequency of urinary tract infections decreases.

B. The urine changes color and pain is diminished.

C. The dipstick test changes from +1 to trace.

D. The daily urinary output increases by 10%. - CORRECT ANSWER-A. The frequency of
urinary tract infections decreases.

,Mandelamine is prescribed to acidify the urine, decreasing the incidence of calcium phosphate
calculi and urinary tract infections. Option B is related to the administration of pyridine.
Mandelamine has no effect on option C or D.




Two hours after taking the first dose of penicillin, a client arrives at the emergency department
complaining of feeling ill, exhibiting hives, having difficulty breathing, and experiencing
hypotension. These findings are consistent with which client response that requires immediate
action?




A. Severe acute anaphylactic response

B. Side reaction that should resolve

C. Idiosyncratic reaction

D. Cumulative drug response - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Severe acute anaphylactic
response




A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is intubated and placed on
assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation and prevent the client from
"fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider administers pancuronium bromide IV, with
adjunctive opioid analgesia. What medication should be immediately accessible for a potential
complication with this drug?




A. Dantrolene sodium

B. Neostigmine bromide

, C. Succinylcholine bromide

D. Epinephrine - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Neostigmine bromide




Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs, reverse the respiratory
muscle paralysis caused by pancuronium bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to
pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the effects of the drug compared
with the use of anticholinergics.




A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, and acetaminophen elixir,
650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the health care provider to report that the client
has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?



A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.

B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.

C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.

D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic. - CORRECT ANSWER-C. Decrease the dose of
vitamin C.




When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine bromide for myasthenia
gravis, which nursing intervention has the highest priority?



A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.

B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
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