ATI TEAS NURSING ENTRANCE EXAM
(TEST BANK) 2025 SMARTPREP
EXAMINATIONS GRADED A+.
A 43-year-old female client is receiving thyroid replacement hormone following a
thyroidectomy. What adverse effects associated with thyroid hormone toxicity
should the nurse instruct the client to report promptly to the healthcare provider? A)
Tinnitus and dizziness.
B) Tachycardia and chest pain.
C) Dry skin and intolerance to cold.
D) Weight gain and increased appetite. - Correct Answer>>B. Thyroid
replacement hormone increases the metabolic rate of all tissues, so
common signs and symptoms of toxicity include tachycardia and
chest pain (B). (A, C, and D) do not indicate a thyroid hormone
toxicity.
Which drug is used as a palliative treatment for a client with tumor-induced spinal cord
compression?
A) Morphine Sulfate (Duromorph).
B) Ibuprofen (Advil).
C) Amitriptyline (Amitril).
D) Dexamethasone (Decadron). - Correct Answer>>D.
Dexamethasone (D) is a palliative treatment modality to manage symptoms related to
compression due to tumor growth. Morphine sulphate (A) is an opioid analgesic used in
,oncology to manage severe or intractable pain. Ibuprofen (B), a nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drug (NSAID), provides relief for mild to moderate pain, suppression
of
inflammation, and reduction of fever. Amitriptyline (C), a tricyclic antidepressant, is
often
prescribed for pain related to neuropathic origin and provides a reduction in opioid
dosage.
A client is receiving metoprolol (Lopressor SR). What assessment is most important for
the nurse to obtain? A) Temperature. B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - Correct Answer>>C.
It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this medication
because Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent. While (A
and B) are important data to obtain on any client, they are not as important for a client
receiving Lopressor as (C). Intake and output ratios and daily weights should be
monitored while taking Lopressor to assess for signs and symptoms of congestive heart
failure, but (D) alone does not have the importance of (C).
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally
for symptom management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action
is most important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose? A)
Review the client's hemoglobin results. B) Notify the healthcare provider.
C) Inquire about the reaction to sulfa.
D) Record the client's vital signs. - Correct Answer>>B.
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic reaction in individuals
who are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the healthcare provider should be notified of the
,client's allergies (B). Although (A, C, and D) are important assessments, it is most
important to notify the healthcare provider for an alternate prescription.
Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status asthmaticus
is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the nurse administer the
prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.) A) Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.
B) Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.
C) Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.
D) Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus). - Correct Answer>>CDAB
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor
prescription, the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate
intervention?
A) Heartburn.
B) Headache.
C) Constipation.
D) Vomiting. - Correct Answer>>d.
Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of digitalis toxicity. Since
Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most immediate
intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor.
A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is being discharged with a new prescription
for the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor captopril (Capoten). The nurse's
discharge instruction should include reporting which problem to the healthcare
provider?
A) Weight loss.
, B) Dizziness.
C) Muscle cramps.
D) Dry mucous membranes. - Correct Answer>>B.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are used in CHF to reduce afterload by
reversing vasoconstriction common in heart failure. This vasodilation can cause
hypotension and resultant dizziness (B). (A) is desired if fluid overload is present, and
may occur as the result of effective combination drug therapy such as diuretics with
ACE inhibitors. (C) often indicates hypokalemia in the client receiving diuretics.
Excessive diuretic administration may result in fluid volume deficit, manifested by
symptoms such as (D).
The nurse is teaching a client with cancer about opioid management for intractable pain
and tolerance related side effects. The nurse should prepare the client for which side
effect that is most likely to persist during long-term use of opioids? A) Sedation. B)
Constipation.
C) Urinary retention.
D) Respiratory depression. - Correct Answer>>b.
The client should be prepared to implement measures for constipation (B) which is the
most likely persistent side effect related to opioid use. Tolerance to opiate narcotics is
common, and the client may experience less sedation (A) and respiratory depression
(D) as analgesic use continues. Opioids increase the tone in the urinary bladder
sphincter, which causes retention (C) but may subside.
The nitrate isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is prescribed for a client with angina. Which
instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan? A) Quit
taking the medication if dizziness occurs.
B) Do not get up quickly. Always rise slowly.
(TEST BANK) 2025 SMARTPREP
EXAMINATIONS GRADED A+.
A 43-year-old female client is receiving thyroid replacement hormone following a
thyroidectomy. What adverse effects associated with thyroid hormone toxicity
should the nurse instruct the client to report promptly to the healthcare provider? A)
Tinnitus and dizziness.
B) Tachycardia and chest pain.
C) Dry skin and intolerance to cold.
D) Weight gain and increased appetite. - Correct Answer>>B. Thyroid
replacement hormone increases the metabolic rate of all tissues, so
common signs and symptoms of toxicity include tachycardia and
chest pain (B). (A, C, and D) do not indicate a thyroid hormone
toxicity.
Which drug is used as a palliative treatment for a client with tumor-induced spinal cord
compression?
A) Morphine Sulfate (Duromorph).
B) Ibuprofen (Advil).
C) Amitriptyline (Amitril).
D) Dexamethasone (Decadron). - Correct Answer>>D.
Dexamethasone (D) is a palliative treatment modality to manage symptoms related to
compression due to tumor growth. Morphine sulphate (A) is an opioid analgesic used in
,oncology to manage severe or intractable pain. Ibuprofen (B), a nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drug (NSAID), provides relief for mild to moderate pain, suppression
of
inflammation, and reduction of fever. Amitriptyline (C), a tricyclic antidepressant, is
often
prescribed for pain related to neuropathic origin and provides a reduction in opioid
dosage.
A client is receiving metoprolol (Lopressor SR). What assessment is most important for
the nurse to obtain? A) Temperature. B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - Correct Answer>>C.
It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this medication
because Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent. While (A
and B) are important data to obtain on any client, they are not as important for a client
receiving Lopressor as (C). Intake and output ratios and daily weights should be
monitored while taking Lopressor to assess for signs and symptoms of congestive heart
failure, but (D) alone does not have the importance of (C).
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally
for symptom management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action
is most important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose? A)
Review the client's hemoglobin results. B) Notify the healthcare provider.
C) Inquire about the reaction to sulfa.
D) Record the client's vital signs. - Correct Answer>>B.
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic reaction in individuals
who are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the healthcare provider should be notified of the
,client's allergies (B). Although (A, C, and D) are important assessments, it is most
important to notify the healthcare provider for an alternate prescription.
Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status asthmaticus
is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the nurse administer the
prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.) A) Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.
B) Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.
C) Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.
D) Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus). - Correct Answer>>CDAB
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor
prescription, the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate
intervention?
A) Heartburn.
B) Headache.
C) Constipation.
D) Vomiting. - Correct Answer>>d.
Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of digitalis toxicity. Since
Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most immediate
intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor.
A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is being discharged with a new prescription
for the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor captopril (Capoten). The nurse's
discharge instruction should include reporting which problem to the healthcare
provider?
A) Weight loss.
, B) Dizziness.
C) Muscle cramps.
D) Dry mucous membranes. - Correct Answer>>B.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are used in CHF to reduce afterload by
reversing vasoconstriction common in heart failure. This vasodilation can cause
hypotension and resultant dizziness (B). (A) is desired if fluid overload is present, and
may occur as the result of effective combination drug therapy such as diuretics with
ACE inhibitors. (C) often indicates hypokalemia in the client receiving diuretics.
Excessive diuretic administration may result in fluid volume deficit, manifested by
symptoms such as (D).
The nurse is teaching a client with cancer about opioid management for intractable pain
and tolerance related side effects. The nurse should prepare the client for which side
effect that is most likely to persist during long-term use of opioids? A) Sedation. B)
Constipation.
C) Urinary retention.
D) Respiratory depression. - Correct Answer>>b.
The client should be prepared to implement measures for constipation (B) which is the
most likely persistent side effect related to opioid use. Tolerance to opiate narcotics is
common, and the client may experience less sedation (A) and respiratory depression
(D) as analgesic use continues. Opioids increase the tone in the urinary bladder
sphincter, which causes retention (C) but may subside.
The nitrate isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is prescribed for a client with angina. Which
instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan? A) Quit
taking the medication if dizziness occurs.
B) Do not get up quickly. Always rise slowly.
